B.Ed. papers
181. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Dormant’—
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active
182. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow
183. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial
184. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest
185. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages’ is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist
186. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic
187. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial
188. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive
189. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of
190. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive
191. Choose the passive voice of—‘Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?
192. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’.
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard
193. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence.
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over
194. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On
195. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron
196. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte
197. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare
198. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles
199. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period
200. Which of the following is not a language skill ?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking
Answers :181. (D) 182. (B) 183. (C) 184. (B) 185. (C) 186. (C) 187. (D) 188. (A) 189. (D) 190. (D)
191. (B) 192. (B) 193. (B) 194. (C) 195. (C) 196. (B) 197. (D) 198. (B) 199. (C) 200. (C)
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active
182. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow
183. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial
184. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest
185. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages’ is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist
186. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic
187. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial
188. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive
189. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of
190. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive
191. Choose the passive voice of—‘Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?
192. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’.
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard
193. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence.
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over
194. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On
195. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron
196. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte
197. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare
198. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles
199. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period
200. Which of the following is not a language skill ?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking
Answers :181. (D) 182. (B) 183. (C) 184. (B) 185. (C) 186. (C) 187. (D) 188. (A) 189. (D) 190. (D)
191. (B) 192. (B) 193. (B) 194. (C) 195. (C) 196. (B) 197. (D) 198. (B) 199. (C) 200. (C)
101. Most important work of teacher is—
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students
102. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual
103. Environmental education should be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment
104. Navodaya Schools have been established to—
(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas
105. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere
106. Women are better teacher at primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession
107. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank
108. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters
109. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher’s day. What will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them
110. A student comes late in your class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there
111. When the students become failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student’s failure
112. It is advantage of giving home work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study
113. In computers, the length of a word is measured in—
(A) Bit
(B) Byte
(C) Millimeter
(D) None of these
114. Who is known as ‘father of computer’ ?
(A) B. Pascal
(B) H. Hollerith
(C) Charles Babbage
(D) J. V. Neumann
115. A teacher has serious defect is he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development
116. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character
117. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors
118. The most important trait of a student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience
119. The purpose of basic education scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all
120. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ?
(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class
121. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching
122. A teacher can motivate the students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class
123. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him
124. National Literacy Mission was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1988
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
125. The aim of National Council for teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education
126. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori
127. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
128. Essay type test are not reliable because—
(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by examiner’s mood
(D) their responding styles are different
129. A guardian never comes to see you in school.
You will—
(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child
130. To maintain interest among students in class, a teacher should—
(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question
131. The purpose of new education policy is—
(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree with education
132. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary—
(A) to evaluate students continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building
133. What is most important for a teacher ?
(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of students
(D) to be good orator
134. Why students should play games in school ?
(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and physical balance
135. Family is a means of—
(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education
136. There is tension among villagers and you are teacher there. What will you do ?
(A) You will inform “Gram Pradhan”
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from them
137. A teacher can develop social values among students by—
(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories
138. What will you do in leisure time in school ?
You will—
(A) take rest in teacher’s room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students
139. A teacher asks the questions in the class to—
(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student’s attention
(D) teach
140. You like teaching profession because—
(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays
141. How the students should be motivated to get success in life ?
(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation
142. In context of the habit of Absenteeism of student—
(A) The principal and parents should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools should take action against them as per school’s discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(D) They should be given less priority in the class room in relation to regular students
143. To whom the responsibility of organisation of curricular activities should be stored with ?
(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest in it
(D) All the teachers
144. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way as taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be—
(A) Discouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class room notes in order to get good mark in the examination
145. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed lesson plan of a topic because—
(A) They can teach in a good manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some mistake, they do not face any challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with brief outline as they gain specialisation in it through experience
146. The problem of drop-out in which students leave their schooling in early years can be tackled in a better way through—
(A) Reduction of the weight of curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the school
(D) Encouragement of the students
147. The ideal teacher—
(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and guide
(D) Maintains good discipline
148. The aim of education should be—
(A) To develop vocational skills in the students
(B) To develop social awareness in the students
(C) To prepare the students for examination
(D) To prepare the students for practical life
149. The best method of checking student’s homework is—
(A) To assign it to intelligent students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way
150. A time bound testing programme for a students should be implemented in Shools so that—
(A) The progress of the students should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be carried out
(C) The students can be trained for final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can be adopted on the basis of the feedback from the results
151. The essential element of the syllabus for the children remained out of school should be—
(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies
152. The contribution of taxpayers in Primary education is in the form of—
(A) Income Tax
(B) Tuition Fee
(C) Paying money for individual tution
(D) Educational cess
153. The priority to girls education should be given because—
(A) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(C) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading for social change
154. The success of integrated education depends on—
(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in teachers
155. The quality of schools education is exclusively depending upon—
(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education
156. The idea of Basic Education is propounded by—
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
157. The most important indicator of quality of education in a school is—
(A) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-learning material
(D) Student Achievement level
158. The best remedy of the student’s problems related with learning is—
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching
159. The in-service teacher’ training can be made more effective by—
(A) Using training package which in wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup procedures
160. Child Labour Prohibition Act (1986)—
(A) Prohibits all types of child labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by imposing the responsibility of children’s education on the employers
Answers:101. (A) 102. (C) 103. (B) 104. (B) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (C)
111. (D) 112. (D) 113. (A) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (C) 120. (D)
121. (D) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (C) 126. (C) 127. (A) 128. (C) 129. (C) 130. (D)
131. (B) 132. (A) 133. (C) 134. (D) 135. (A) 136. (B) 137. (C) 138. (D) 139. (C) 140. (B)
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (D) 146. (D) 147. (C) 148. (D) 149. (D) 150. (D)
151. (D) 152. (D) 153. (D) 154. (B) 155. (D) 156. (C) 157. (D) 158. (D) 159. (D) 160. (A)
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students
102. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual
103. Environmental education should be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment
104. Navodaya Schools have been established to—
(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas
105. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere
106. Women are better teacher at primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession
107. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank
108. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters
109. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher’s day. What will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them
110. A student comes late in your class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there
111. When the students become failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student’s failure
112. It is advantage of giving home work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study
113. In computers, the length of a word is measured in—
(A) Bit
(B) Byte
(C) Millimeter
(D) None of these
114. Who is known as ‘father of computer’ ?
(A) B. Pascal
(B) H. Hollerith
(C) Charles Babbage
(D) J. V. Neumann
115. A teacher has serious defect is he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development
116. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character
117. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors
118. The most important trait of a student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience
119. The purpose of basic education scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all
120. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ?
(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class
121. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching
122. A teacher can motivate the students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class
123. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him
124. National Literacy Mission was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1988
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
125. The aim of National Council for teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education
126. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori
127. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
128. Essay type test are not reliable because—
(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by examiner’s mood
(D) their responding styles are different
129. A guardian never comes to see you in school.
You will—
(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child
130. To maintain interest among students in class, a teacher should—
(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question
131. The purpose of new education policy is—
(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree with education
132. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary—
(A) to evaluate students continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building
133. What is most important for a teacher ?
(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of students
(D) to be good orator
134. Why students should play games in school ?
(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and physical balance
135. Family is a means of—
(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education
136. There is tension among villagers and you are teacher there. What will you do ?
(A) You will inform “Gram Pradhan”
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from them
137. A teacher can develop social values among students by—
(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories
138. What will you do in leisure time in school ?
You will—
(A) take rest in teacher’s room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students
139. A teacher asks the questions in the class to—
(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student’s attention
(D) teach
140. You like teaching profession because—
(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays
141. How the students should be motivated to get success in life ?
(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation
142. In context of the habit of Absenteeism of student—
(A) The principal and parents should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools should take action against them as per school’s discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(D) They should be given less priority in the class room in relation to regular students
143. To whom the responsibility of organisation of curricular activities should be stored with ?
(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest in it
(D) All the teachers
144. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way as taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be—
(A) Discouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class room notes in order to get good mark in the examination
145. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed lesson plan of a topic because—
(A) They can teach in a good manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some mistake, they do not face any challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with brief outline as they gain specialisation in it through experience
146. The problem of drop-out in which students leave their schooling in early years can be tackled in a better way through—
(A) Reduction of the weight of curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the school
(D) Encouragement of the students
147. The ideal teacher—
(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and guide
(D) Maintains good discipline
148. The aim of education should be—
(A) To develop vocational skills in the students
(B) To develop social awareness in the students
(C) To prepare the students for examination
(D) To prepare the students for practical life
149. The best method of checking student’s homework is—
(A) To assign it to intelligent students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way
150. A time bound testing programme for a students should be implemented in Shools so that—
(A) The progress of the students should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be carried out
(C) The students can be trained for final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can be adopted on the basis of the feedback from the results
151. The essential element of the syllabus for the children remained out of school should be—
(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies
152. The contribution of taxpayers in Primary education is in the form of—
(A) Income Tax
(B) Tuition Fee
(C) Paying money for individual tution
(D) Educational cess
153. The priority to girls education should be given because—
(A) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(C) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading for social change
154. The success of integrated education depends on—
(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in teachers
155. The quality of schools education is exclusively depending upon—
(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education
156. The idea of Basic Education is propounded by—
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
157. The most important indicator of quality of education in a school is—
(A) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-learning material
(D) Student Achievement level
158. The best remedy of the student’s problems related with learning is—
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching
159. The in-service teacher’ training can be made more effective by—
(A) Using training package which in wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup procedures
160. Child Labour Prohibition Act (1986)—
(A) Prohibits all types of child labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by imposing the responsibility of children’s education on the employers
Answers:101. (A) 102. (C) 103. (B) 104. (B) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (C)
111. (D) 112. (D) 113. (A) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (C) 120. (D)
121. (D) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (C) 126. (C) 127. (A) 128. (C) 129. (C) 130. (D)
131. (B) 132. (A) 133. (C) 134. (D) 135. (A) 136. (B) 137. (C) 138. (D) 139. (C) 140. (B)
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (D) 146. (D) 147. (C) 148. (D) 149. (D) 150. (D)
151. (D) 152. (D) 153. (D) 154. (B) 155. (D) 156. (C) 157. (D) 158. (D) 159. (D) 160. (A)
61. Who is the author of the book “Chhattisgarh Geet Sangraha, Antas Ke Geet” ?
(A) Brij Mohan Agarwal
(B) Rajesh Chouhan
(C) Devendra Verma
(D) Dr. Raman Singh
62. The highest dam in India, Bhakra, is built ozn—
(A) Vyas river
(B) Jhelum river
(C) Sutlej river
(D) Ghaghara river
63. The currency of Myanmar is—
(A) Dollar
(B) Rupee
(C) Taka
(D) Kyat
64. Which is the smallest country (in population) ?
(A) Vatican city
(B) Nauru
(C) Monaco
(D) Palau
65. Who is associated with the term ‘Loknayak’ in India ?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Jay Prakash Narayan
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya
66. Which of the following sites has been included in UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites ?
(A) Chilka Lake
(B) Dal Lake
(C) Nagin Lake
(D) Sunderbans National Park
67. Which country won the ICC Twenty-20 World Cup ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Australia
(D) England
68. Indravati National Park is situated on the banks of river—
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Sone
(C) Ganga
(D) Indravati
69. Which water reservoir is the highest in Chhattisgarh ?
(A) Minimata Reservoir
(B) Ravishankar Reservoir
(C) Sondhoor Reservoir
(D) Kodar Reservoir
70. Who, out of the following, was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna Award ?
(A) B.C. Roy
(B) S. Chandrashekhar
(C) C.V. Raman
(D) Gobind Ballabh Pant
71. Trans-Siberian Railway terminals are—
(A) Moscow and Vladivostok
(B) St. Petersburg and Vladivostok
(C) Moscow and Krasnoyarsk
(D) St. Petersburg and Krasnoyarsk
72. Largest Mica deposits are in—
(A) South Africa
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Australia
73. Heat stored in water vapour is—
(A) Specific heat
(B) Latent heat
(C) Absolute heat
(D) Relative heat
74. Force of deflection was first discovered by—
(A) Coriolis
(B) Ferrel
(C) Thornthwaite
(D) Koeppen
75. Contours are imaginary lines showing—
(A) places of equal atmospheric pressure
(B) same temperature areas
(C) places of equal altitudes
(D) equal sunshine areas
76. Which State of India has the largest area ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
77. The fertile land between two rivers is called—
(A) Watershed
(B) Water divide
(C) Doab
(D) Tarai
78. At which place Chhattisgarh’s Super Thermal Power Station is located ?
(A) Raigarh
(B) Dantewada
(C) Korba
(D) Bhilai
79. Which of the following state has won the 2007 UNDP Award for Human Development Report in the category of Excellence in Participation and capacity building process ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Haryana
(D) Chhattisgarh
80. Which of the following pairs (Sanctuaries and districts) is not properly matched ?
(A) Achanakmar—Bilaspur
(B) Badalkhol—Jashpur
(C) Gomerda—Raigarh
(D) Udanti—Sarguja
81. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages ?
(A) Greater adaptability
(B) Strong State
(C) Greater participation by the people
(D) Lesser chances of authoritarianism
82. Which one of the following is not an element of the State ?
(A) Population
(B) Land
(C) Army
(D) Government
83. According to the Indian Constitution, the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
84. The Parliament consists of—
(A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Sabha, Vidhan Parishad and Lok Sabha
85. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
86. Which of the following is called the ‘powerhouse’ of the cell ?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Lysosome
(C) Chromosome
(D) Mitochondrion
87. Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by—
(A) protozoa
(B) virus
(C) fungus
(D) bacteria
88. Which of the following processes does not increase the amount of cabron dioxide in air ?
(A) Breathing
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Burning of petrol
(D) Aerobic decay of vegetation
89. The vitamin that is most readily manufactured in our bodies is—
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin B
(C) vitamin C
(D) vitamin D
90. Which of the following metals occurs in free state ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Zinc
(D) Lead
91. The World Trade Organisation was formed in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1999
92. A Trade Policy consists of—
(A) Export-Import Policy
(B) Licencing Policy
(C) Foreign Exchange Policy
(D) Balance of Payment Policy
93. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Above (A) and (B)
94. The Swarajya Party was formed following the failure of—
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Quit India Movement
(D) Champaran Satyagraha
95. The largest standing army of the Sultanate, directly paid by the State, was created by—
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
(D) Sikander Lodi
96. With which of the following centres of learning, Chanakya the famous teacher of Chandragupta Maurya, was associated ?
(A) Takshashila
(B) Nalanda
(C) Vikramashila
(D) Vaishali
97. Who among the following Rajput kings defeated Muhammad Ghori for the first time ?
(A) Prithviraj III
(B) Chalukya Bhim
(C) Jaichandra
(D) Kumar Pal
98. The Headquarters of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is located at—
(A) Paris (France)
(B) Geneva (Switzerland)
(C) New York (USA)
(D) Bangkok (Thailand)
99. ‘The Federal System with Strong Centre’ has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from—
(A) United States of America
(B) Canada
(C) United Kingdom
(D) France
100. ‘Thomas Cup’ is associated with which game/sports ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Basketball
(D) Badminton
Answers :61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (A) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (B) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (A)
91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (D)
(A) Brij Mohan Agarwal
(B) Rajesh Chouhan
(C) Devendra Verma
(D) Dr. Raman Singh
62. The highest dam in India, Bhakra, is built ozn—
(A) Vyas river
(B) Jhelum river
(C) Sutlej river
(D) Ghaghara river
63. The currency of Myanmar is—
(A) Dollar
(B) Rupee
(C) Taka
(D) Kyat
64. Which is the smallest country (in population) ?
(A) Vatican city
(B) Nauru
(C) Monaco
(D) Palau
65. Who is associated with the term ‘Loknayak’ in India ?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Jay Prakash Narayan
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya
66. Which of the following sites has been included in UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites ?
(A) Chilka Lake
(B) Dal Lake
(C) Nagin Lake
(D) Sunderbans National Park
67. Which country won the ICC Twenty-20 World Cup ?
(A) India
(B) Pakistan
(C) Australia
(D) England
68. Indravati National Park is situated on the banks of river—
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Sone
(C) Ganga
(D) Indravati
69. Which water reservoir is the highest in Chhattisgarh ?
(A) Minimata Reservoir
(B) Ravishankar Reservoir
(C) Sondhoor Reservoir
(D) Kodar Reservoir
70. Who, out of the following, was the first recipient of Bharat Ratna Award ?
(A) B.C. Roy
(B) S. Chandrashekhar
(C) C.V. Raman
(D) Gobind Ballabh Pant
71. Trans-Siberian Railway terminals are—
(A) Moscow and Vladivostok
(B) St. Petersburg and Vladivostok
(C) Moscow and Krasnoyarsk
(D) St. Petersburg and Krasnoyarsk
72. Largest Mica deposits are in—
(A) South Africa
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Australia
73. Heat stored in water vapour is—
(A) Specific heat
(B) Latent heat
(C) Absolute heat
(D) Relative heat
74. Force of deflection was first discovered by—
(A) Coriolis
(B) Ferrel
(C) Thornthwaite
(D) Koeppen
75. Contours are imaginary lines showing—
(A) places of equal atmospheric pressure
(B) same temperature areas
(C) places of equal altitudes
(D) equal sunshine areas
76. Which State of India has the largest area ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
77. The fertile land between two rivers is called—
(A) Watershed
(B) Water divide
(C) Doab
(D) Tarai
78. At which place Chhattisgarh’s Super Thermal Power Station is located ?
(A) Raigarh
(B) Dantewada
(C) Korba
(D) Bhilai
79. Which of the following state has won the 2007 UNDP Award for Human Development Report in the category of Excellence in Participation and capacity building process ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Haryana
(D) Chhattisgarh
80. Which of the following pairs (Sanctuaries and districts) is not properly matched ?
(A) Achanakmar—Bilaspur
(B) Badalkhol—Jashpur
(C) Gomerda—Raigarh
(D) Udanti—Sarguja
81. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages ?
(A) Greater adaptability
(B) Strong State
(C) Greater participation by the people
(D) Lesser chances of authoritarianism
82. Which one of the following is not an element of the State ?
(A) Population
(B) Land
(C) Army
(D) Government
83. According to the Indian Constitution, the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
84. The Parliament consists of—
(A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Sabha, Vidhan Parishad and Lok Sabha
85. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
86. Which of the following is called the ‘powerhouse’ of the cell ?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Lysosome
(C) Chromosome
(D) Mitochondrion
87. Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by—
(A) protozoa
(B) virus
(C) fungus
(D) bacteria
88. Which of the following processes does not increase the amount of cabron dioxide in air ?
(A) Breathing
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Burning of petrol
(D) Aerobic decay of vegetation
89. The vitamin that is most readily manufactured in our bodies is—
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin B
(C) vitamin C
(D) vitamin D
90. Which of the following metals occurs in free state ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Zinc
(D) Lead
91. The World Trade Organisation was formed in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1995
(C) 1997
(D) 1999
92. A Trade Policy consists of—
(A) Export-Import Policy
(B) Licencing Policy
(C) Foreign Exchange Policy
(D) Balance of Payment Policy
93. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Above (A) and (B)
94. The Swarajya Party was formed following the failure of—
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Quit India Movement
(D) Champaran Satyagraha
95. The largest standing army of the Sultanate, directly paid by the State, was created by—
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
(D) Sikander Lodi
96. With which of the following centres of learning, Chanakya the famous teacher of Chandragupta Maurya, was associated ?
(A) Takshashila
(B) Nalanda
(C) Vikramashila
(D) Vaishali
97. Who among the following Rajput kings defeated Muhammad Ghori for the first time ?
(A) Prithviraj III
(B) Chalukya Bhim
(C) Jaichandra
(D) Kumar Pal
98. The Headquarters of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is located at—
(A) Paris (France)
(B) Geneva (Switzerland)
(C) New York (USA)
(D) Bangkok (Thailand)
99. ‘The Federal System with Strong Centre’ has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from—
(A) United States of America
(B) Canada
(C) United Kingdom
(D) France
100. ‘Thomas Cup’ is associated with which game/sports ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Basketball
(D) Badminton
Answers :61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (A) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (C) 76. (D) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (B) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (A)
91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (D)
Directions—(Q. 151–160) Read each sentence to find out if there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (E). (Ignore errors in punctuation, if any).
151. In spite of the extreme cold (A)/ she insisted on (B)/taking a trip to Shimla (C)/ where is her birthplace. (D) No error (E)
152. The government decision (A)/ will benefit all (B)/ the software companies registered (C)/ under the scheme. (D) No error (E)
153. The trustee has agreed (A)/ not only to fund the construction (B)/ of the auditorium (C)/ but also the new research centre. (D) No error (E)
154. Keeping in mind the rivalry (A)/ between Vinod and Sachin (B)/ the manager has assigned him (C)/ to different teams. (D) No error (E)
155. In recent times companies have found (A)/ the internet to be ideal place (B)/ to hire personnel (C)/ and form business partnerships. (D) No error (E)
156. These rules were created (A)/ to protect the interests of the student (B)/ who live away from home (C)/ and have no local guardian. (D) No error (E)
157. Concerned over (A)/ the loss of revenue (B)/ the Government plan (C)/ to review the policy immediately. (D) No error (E)
158. Having heard all the evidence (A)/ the Chairman should now (B)/ be able to arrive (C)/ to a fair decision. (D) No error (E)
159. There are very fewer hotels (A)/ providing facilities for (B)/ guests who want to bring their pets (C)/ alongwith them. (D) No error (E)
160. The report states that (A)/ in several parts of the country (B)/ there has not been (C)/ adequately rain this year. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 161–175) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (E) i.e. ‘No Correction Required’ as the answer.
161. The meeting is attempted to mend the strained relations between the management and the employees.
(A) was attempted for mending
(B) is an attempt to mend
(C) is attempted at mending of
(D) will be attempted by mending
(E) No Correction Required
162. He arrived at the hotel, which a reception was held in his honour.
(A) in which a reception is
(B) while a reception being
(C) where a reception was
(D) since a reception going on
(E) No Correction Required
163. Since his college days he has been standing up with the rights of the weak and the oppressed.
(A) stood up along with
(B) standing in for
(C) for standing beside
(D) standing up for
(E) No Correction Required
164. Unless a man with plenty of money can afford a house in this locality.
(A) Until a man has
(B) When a man possesses
(C) Except a man of
(D) Only a man with
(E) No Correction Required
165. They lost the vote because they could not express clearly.
(A) express themselves clearly
(B) express each other clearly
(C) clearly express
(D) be clearly expressed
(E) No Correction Required
166. Ramesh must be punished for acting in opposite to my wishes.
(A) opposing to
(B) in opposite with
(C) opposite against
(D) in opposition to
(E) No Correction Required
167. India is a diverse and breathtaking country with many places worthwhile to see.
(A) worth sight
(B) worth seeing
(C) worthwhile scene
(D) worthy seeing
(E) No Correction Required
168. The sales conference cannot be began till the festive season is over.
(A) cannot have beginning
(B) unable to begin
(C) cannot begin
(D) has no beginning
(E) No Correction Required
169. It was surprising to note that she enjoyed the game of cricket same as her brother did.
(A) as much as
(B) with the same liking as
(C) alike
(D) same like
(E) No Correction Required
170. They are very much enterprising of all the other students I have taught.
(A) so much enterprising like
(B) more enterprising than
(C) very much enterprising than
(D) much enterprising of
(E) No Correction Required
171. Taken everything into consideration, we feel that the principal was justified in suspending
the student.
(A) Taking all things into considering
(B) To take everything with consideration
(C) Taking everything into consideration
(D) While taking everything for consideration
(E) No Correction Required
172. He succeeded in getting the promotion as he performed well than the other candidates in the written test.
(A) performed best of
(B) performed better
(C) performance was better
(D) performing very well
(E) No Correction Required
173. The inquiry found that both the secretary and the treasurer had been negligent in their duties.
(A) neglecting his duty
(B) neglected by their duties
(C) neglecting in their duty
(D) negligence for their duties
(E) No Correction Required
174. I with my family have resided in a small village near the sea for the past two decades.
(A) My family along with I has
(B) My family and me have
(C) My family and I have
(D) I together with my family has
(E) No Correction Required
175. The channel has brought the rights to the cricket series for a huge sum of money.
(A) paid the rights for
(B) bought the rights for
(C) been paid the rites to
(D) bought off the rights
(E) No Correction Required
Directions—(Q. 176–185) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Aviation is an essential link for travel, trade and connectivity. While full service carriers attract passengers with the overall quality of their services, low cost airlines compete on cost. They offer bare-bone services, fly more sectors a day and operate from smaller secondary airports that have lower charges. These may be very far from the city centres costing passengers more time and money to get into town. Some services like London’s Luton are aimed at eliminating the problems of connecting flights. They tend to avoid head-on competition with each other and prey on full services airlines. Staff are usually less well paid, more intensively used and in shorter supply as compared to full service airlines. There are numerous exceptions though in other countries. Easy Jet operates from major airports and Jet Blue offers live programmes for free.
In India 70% of the operating costs of low cost airlines are the same as that of full service carriers, leaving just 30% to juggle with to gain an overall advantage over full service carriers. Many of these costs like fuel are above global levels. Exorbitant State and Central government taxes and duties are the main culprits. Air Deccan envisions that their airline fares will match rail fares—unattainable because of the economies of scale that the railways enjoy. Few secondary airports and fares falling faster than their costs have hurt low cost airlines more than others, as they have to achieve higher fleet utilization. Allowing low cost airlines to utilize non-metro airports at lower charges during off-peak hours while providing full service airlines peak hour slots but at higher rates could help.
Low cost airlines can aid economic development and the current economic boom has been the right time to launch India’s low cost revolution though in their efforts to achieve economies of scale and greater market share they have been reckless and have gone deep into the red. India has to await second-generation low cost airlines to deliver the goods.
176. The primary purpose of low cost airlines is to—
(A) provide connectivity at low rates
(B) enhance economic development
(C) do away with the inconvenience of connecting flights
(D) reduce congestion at crowded city airports
(E) reduce the passenger pressure on the railways
177. The author’s view of Indian low cost airlines is that—
(A) they are based on global models allowing them to compete with railways
(B) they benefit from certain exemptions on tax and duties
(C) with only 70% of the operating cost being the same as full service airlines they have a major advantage
(D) they are loss-making enterprises as their efforts to expand have been hasty
(E) None of these
178. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. Indian low cost carriers though launched at the right time have been mismanaged.
2. Jet Blue is one of the premier full service air carriers in the world.
3. Business for low cost carriers is good enough to allow them to compete with railways.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
179. Which of the following measures can boost the low cost carrier business ?
(A) Increasing rail fares to allow low cost carriers a chance to compete
(B) Government should own a stake in low cost airlines
(C) Preference for low cost carriers during peak hours at major airports
(D) Developing adequate secondary airports
(E) Equivalent charges for full services and low cost airlines at metro airports
180. The growth of low cost airlines in India has been hampered by—
1. inadequate airport infrastructure.
2. attracting and retaining staff in spite of higher pay packages.
3. costs of providing additional quality services.
(A) Only 3
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 1
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
181. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The low cost airline industry has very recently come to India
(B) Full service airlines operate from secondary airports to meet the costs of free services
(C) Indian low cost airlines have not been able to make even a marginal profit
(D) Staff of low cost airlines has longer working hours as compared to full service airline
(E) None of these
182. A benefit of low cost airlines is—
(A) they operate away from crowded cities
(B) their fares are more reasonable than rail fares
(C) decrease in fares despite a rise in costs
(D) efficient bare minimum services at affordable rates
(E) utilizing secondary airports despite their higher charges
183. Why are low cost airline India currently experiencing difficulties ?
(A) Over ambitious plans for expansion
(B) Recession in global airline industry
(C) Monopoly of govt. owned full service airlines
(D) Lack of favourable economic conditions
(E) None of these
184. Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word intensively used in the passage.
(A) Severely
(B) Excessively
(C) Powerfully
(D) Strongly
(E) Harshly
185. Choose the word/phrase which is the most opposite in meaning to the word Aid as used in the passage.
(A) Ignore
(B) Disregard
(C) Protect
(D) Obstruct
(E) Conceal
Directions—(Q. 186–190) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
186. You must ensure the correctness of the information before ……… to conclusion.
(A) drawing
(B) enabling
(C) leaning
(D) jumping
(E) examining
187. The rocket ……… the target and did not cause any casualty.
(A) sensed
(B) reached
(C) missed
(D) exploded
(E) aimed
188. It is desirable to take ……… in any business if you want to make profit.
(A) advice
(B) risk
(C) loan
(D) recourse
(E) perseverance
189. They wasted all the money on purchase of some ……… items.
(A) excellent
(B) important
(C) significant
(D) quality
(E) trivial
190. When he found the wallet his face glowed but soon it faded as the wallet was ………
(A) Empty
(B) Vacant
(C) Recovered
(D) Stolen
(E) Expensive
Directions—(Q. 191–200) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Jamshedji Tata is (…191…) to be the path-finder of modern industrial builders. He is known as the grandfather of the Indian industry for his acumen and enthusiasm. Nobody else could have (…192…) of the new industries started by Jamshedji at that time when industrial (…193…) and revolution was yet to come to India.
Jamshedji’s father Nasarvanji Tata used to trade in jute with China and Britain. He started (…194…) from India. Jamshedji started a cloth mill in Nagpur more than hundred years ago. At that time almost all the (…195…) used to come from Lancashire in England. What Jamshedji (…196…) was praiseworthy.
Jamshedji (…197…) very well that an industrial revolution can only be brought in the country by setting up iron and steel industry. (…198…) he did not live to see the industry he had in mind, he had done all (…199…) work. In fact, he laid the ground work for it. He had planned the entire steel city now known as Jamshedpur, complete with streets, roads, schools, parks, play grounds, temples, mosques, churches, etc. His (…200…) was fulfilled by his sons, Sir Dorabji Tata and Sir Rattan Tata, when they started the Tata Iron and Steel Factory in 1907 just after three years of his death.
191. (A) rewarded
(B) agreed
(C) empowered
(D) determined
(E) considered
192. (A) absolved
(B) thought
(C) ventured
(D) set
(E) planned
193. (A) imports
(B) acts
(C) machinery
(D) awakening
(E) factories
194. (A) export
(B) industries
(C) import
(D) trade
(E) dispatch
195. (A) goods
(B) imports
(C) cloth
(D) machines
(E) industries
196. (A) did
(B) dreamt
(C) agreed
(D) told
(E) meant
197. (A) felt
(B) advocated
(C) planned
(D) thought
(E) knew
198. (A) because
(B) although
(C) surprisingly
(D) luckily
(E) even
199. (A) insignificant
(B) complete
(C) trivial
(D) preliminary
(E) external
200. (A) need
(B) task
(C) dream
(D) industry
(E) sentiment
Answers :
161. (B) 162. (C) 163. (D) 164. (D) 165. (A) 166. (D) 167. (B) 168. (C) 169. (A) 170. (B)
171. (C) 172. (B) 173. (E) 174. (C) 175. (B) 176. (A) 177. (C) 178. (B) 179. (E) 180. (E)
181. (D) 182. (C) 183. (E) 184. (C) 185. (D) 186. (D) 187. (C) 188. (B) 189. (E) 190. (A)
191. (E) 192. (B) 193. (D) 194. (A) 195. (C) 196. (A) 197. (E) 198. (B) 199. (D) 200. (C)
151. In spite of the extreme cold (A)/ she insisted on (B)/taking a trip to Shimla (C)/ where is her birthplace. (D) No error (E)
152. The government decision (A)/ will benefit all (B)/ the software companies registered (C)/ under the scheme. (D) No error (E)
153. The trustee has agreed (A)/ not only to fund the construction (B)/ of the auditorium (C)/ but also the new research centre. (D) No error (E)
154. Keeping in mind the rivalry (A)/ between Vinod and Sachin (B)/ the manager has assigned him (C)/ to different teams. (D) No error (E)
155. In recent times companies have found (A)/ the internet to be ideal place (B)/ to hire personnel (C)/ and form business partnerships. (D) No error (E)
156. These rules were created (A)/ to protect the interests of the student (B)/ who live away from home (C)/ and have no local guardian. (D) No error (E)
157. Concerned over (A)/ the loss of revenue (B)/ the Government plan (C)/ to review the policy immediately. (D) No error (E)
158. Having heard all the evidence (A)/ the Chairman should now (B)/ be able to arrive (C)/ to a fair decision. (D) No error (E)
159. There are very fewer hotels (A)/ providing facilities for (B)/ guests who want to bring their pets (C)/ alongwith them. (D) No error (E)
160. The report states that (A)/ in several parts of the country (B)/ there has not been (C)/ adequately rain this year. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 161–175) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is mark (E) i.e. ‘No Correction Required’ as the answer.
161. The meeting is attempted to mend the strained relations between the management and the employees.
(A) was attempted for mending
(B) is an attempt to mend
(C) is attempted at mending of
(D) will be attempted by mending
(E) No Correction Required
162. He arrived at the hotel, which a reception was held in his honour.
(A) in which a reception is
(B) while a reception being
(C) where a reception was
(D) since a reception going on
(E) No Correction Required
163. Since his college days he has been standing up with the rights of the weak and the oppressed.
(A) stood up along with
(B) standing in for
(C) for standing beside
(D) standing up for
(E) No Correction Required
164. Unless a man with plenty of money can afford a house in this locality.
(A) Until a man has
(B) When a man possesses
(C) Except a man of
(D) Only a man with
(E) No Correction Required
165. They lost the vote because they could not express clearly.
(A) express themselves clearly
(B) express each other clearly
(C) clearly express
(D) be clearly expressed
(E) No Correction Required
166. Ramesh must be punished for acting in opposite to my wishes.
(A) opposing to
(B) in opposite with
(C) opposite against
(D) in opposition to
(E) No Correction Required
167. India is a diverse and breathtaking country with many places worthwhile to see.
(A) worth sight
(B) worth seeing
(C) worthwhile scene
(D) worthy seeing
(E) No Correction Required
168. The sales conference cannot be began till the festive season is over.
(A) cannot have beginning
(B) unable to begin
(C) cannot begin
(D) has no beginning
(E) No Correction Required
169. It was surprising to note that she enjoyed the game of cricket same as her brother did.
(A) as much as
(B) with the same liking as
(C) alike
(D) same like
(E) No Correction Required
170. They are very much enterprising of all the other students I have taught.
(A) so much enterprising like
(B) more enterprising than
(C) very much enterprising than
(D) much enterprising of
(E) No Correction Required
171. Taken everything into consideration, we feel that the principal was justified in suspending
the student.
(A) Taking all things into considering
(B) To take everything with consideration
(C) Taking everything into consideration
(D) While taking everything for consideration
(E) No Correction Required
172. He succeeded in getting the promotion as he performed well than the other candidates in the written test.
(A) performed best of
(B) performed better
(C) performance was better
(D) performing very well
(E) No Correction Required
173. The inquiry found that both the secretary and the treasurer had been negligent in their duties.
(A) neglecting his duty
(B) neglected by their duties
(C) neglecting in their duty
(D) negligence for their duties
(E) No Correction Required
174. I with my family have resided in a small village near the sea for the past two decades.
(A) My family along with I has
(B) My family and me have
(C) My family and I have
(D) I together with my family has
(E) No Correction Required
175. The channel has brought the rights to the cricket series for a huge sum of money.
(A) paid the rights for
(B) bought the rights for
(C) been paid the rites to
(D) bought off the rights
(E) No Correction Required
Directions—(Q. 176–185) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Aviation is an essential link for travel, trade and connectivity. While full service carriers attract passengers with the overall quality of their services, low cost airlines compete on cost. They offer bare-bone services, fly more sectors a day and operate from smaller secondary airports that have lower charges. These may be very far from the city centres costing passengers more time and money to get into town. Some services like London’s Luton are aimed at eliminating the problems of connecting flights. They tend to avoid head-on competition with each other and prey on full services airlines. Staff are usually less well paid, more intensively used and in shorter supply as compared to full service airlines. There are numerous exceptions though in other countries. Easy Jet operates from major airports and Jet Blue offers live programmes for free.
In India 70% of the operating costs of low cost airlines are the same as that of full service carriers, leaving just 30% to juggle with to gain an overall advantage over full service carriers. Many of these costs like fuel are above global levels. Exorbitant State and Central government taxes and duties are the main culprits. Air Deccan envisions that their airline fares will match rail fares—unattainable because of the economies of scale that the railways enjoy. Few secondary airports and fares falling faster than their costs have hurt low cost airlines more than others, as they have to achieve higher fleet utilization. Allowing low cost airlines to utilize non-metro airports at lower charges during off-peak hours while providing full service airlines peak hour slots but at higher rates could help.
Low cost airlines can aid economic development and the current economic boom has been the right time to launch India’s low cost revolution though in their efforts to achieve economies of scale and greater market share they have been reckless and have gone deep into the red. India has to await second-generation low cost airlines to deliver the goods.
176. The primary purpose of low cost airlines is to—
(A) provide connectivity at low rates
(B) enhance economic development
(C) do away with the inconvenience of connecting flights
(D) reduce congestion at crowded city airports
(E) reduce the passenger pressure on the railways
177. The author’s view of Indian low cost airlines is that—
(A) they are based on global models allowing them to compete with railways
(B) they benefit from certain exemptions on tax and duties
(C) with only 70% of the operating cost being the same as full service airlines they have a major advantage
(D) they are loss-making enterprises as their efforts to expand have been hasty
(E) None of these
178. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. Indian low cost carriers though launched at the right time have been mismanaged.
2. Jet Blue is one of the premier full service air carriers in the world.
3. Business for low cost carriers is good enough to allow them to compete with railways.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these
179. Which of the following measures can boost the low cost carrier business ?
(A) Increasing rail fares to allow low cost carriers a chance to compete
(B) Government should own a stake in low cost airlines
(C) Preference for low cost carriers during peak hours at major airports
(D) Developing adequate secondary airports
(E) Equivalent charges for full services and low cost airlines at metro airports
180. The growth of low cost airlines in India has been hampered by—
1. inadequate airport infrastructure.
2. attracting and retaining staff in spite of higher pay packages.
3. costs of providing additional quality services.
(A) Only 3
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 1
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
181. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The low cost airline industry has very recently come to India
(B) Full service airlines operate from secondary airports to meet the costs of free services
(C) Indian low cost airlines have not been able to make even a marginal profit
(D) Staff of low cost airlines has longer working hours as compared to full service airline
(E) None of these
182. A benefit of low cost airlines is—
(A) they operate away from crowded cities
(B) their fares are more reasonable than rail fares
(C) decrease in fares despite a rise in costs
(D) efficient bare minimum services at affordable rates
(E) utilizing secondary airports despite their higher charges
183. Why are low cost airline India currently experiencing difficulties ?
(A) Over ambitious plans for expansion
(B) Recession in global airline industry
(C) Monopoly of govt. owned full service airlines
(D) Lack of favourable economic conditions
(E) None of these
184. Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word intensively used in the passage.
(A) Severely
(B) Excessively
(C) Powerfully
(D) Strongly
(E) Harshly
185. Choose the word/phrase which is the most opposite in meaning to the word Aid as used in the passage.
(A) Ignore
(B) Disregard
(C) Protect
(D) Obstruct
(E) Conceal
Directions—(Q. 186–190) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
186. You must ensure the correctness of the information before ……… to conclusion.
(A) drawing
(B) enabling
(C) leaning
(D) jumping
(E) examining
187. The rocket ……… the target and did not cause any casualty.
(A) sensed
(B) reached
(C) missed
(D) exploded
(E) aimed
188. It is desirable to take ……… in any business if you want to make profit.
(A) advice
(B) risk
(C) loan
(D) recourse
(E) perseverance
189. They wasted all the money on purchase of some ……… items.
(A) excellent
(B) important
(C) significant
(D) quality
(E) trivial
190. When he found the wallet his face glowed but soon it faded as the wallet was ………
(A) Empty
(B) Vacant
(C) Recovered
(D) Stolen
(E) Expensive
Directions—(Q. 191–200) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Jamshedji Tata is (…191…) to be the path-finder of modern industrial builders. He is known as the grandfather of the Indian industry for his acumen and enthusiasm. Nobody else could have (…192…) of the new industries started by Jamshedji at that time when industrial (…193…) and revolution was yet to come to India.
Jamshedji’s father Nasarvanji Tata used to trade in jute with China and Britain. He started (…194…) from India. Jamshedji started a cloth mill in Nagpur more than hundred years ago. At that time almost all the (…195…) used to come from Lancashire in England. What Jamshedji (…196…) was praiseworthy.
Jamshedji (…197…) very well that an industrial revolution can only be brought in the country by setting up iron and steel industry. (…198…) he did not live to see the industry he had in mind, he had done all (…199…) work. In fact, he laid the ground work for it. He had planned the entire steel city now known as Jamshedpur, complete with streets, roads, schools, parks, play grounds, temples, mosques, churches, etc. His (…200…) was fulfilled by his sons, Sir Dorabji Tata and Sir Rattan Tata, when they started the Tata Iron and Steel Factory in 1907 just after three years of his death.
191. (A) rewarded
(B) agreed
(C) empowered
(D) determined
(E) considered
192. (A) absolved
(B) thought
(C) ventured
(D) set
(E) planned
193. (A) imports
(B) acts
(C) machinery
(D) awakening
(E) factories
194. (A) export
(B) industries
(C) import
(D) trade
(E) dispatch
195. (A) goods
(B) imports
(C) cloth
(D) machines
(E) industries
196. (A) did
(B) dreamt
(C) agreed
(D) told
(E) meant
197. (A) felt
(B) advocated
(C) planned
(D) thought
(E) knew
198. (A) because
(B) although
(C) surprisingly
(D) luckily
(E) even
199. (A) insignificant
(B) complete
(C) trivial
(D) preliminary
(E) external
200. (A) need
(B) task
(C) dream
(D) industry
(E) sentiment
Answers :
161. (B) 162. (C) 163. (D) 164. (D) 165. (A) 166. (D) 167. (B) 168. (C) 169. (A) 170. (B)
171. (C) 172. (B) 173. (E) 174. (C) 175. (B) 176. (A) 177. (C) 178. (B) 179. (E) 180. (E)
181. (D) 182. (C) 183. (E) 184. (C) 185. (D) 186. (D) 187. (C) 188. (B) 189. (E) 190. (A)
191. (E) 192. (B) 193. (D) 194. (A) 195. (C) 196. (A) 197. (E) 198. (B) 199. (D) 200. (C)
101. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which of the following games ?
(A) Swimming
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Shooting
(D) Archery
102. ‘The Dronacharya Award’ is associated with—
(A) Eminent Surgeons
(B) Famous Artists
(C) Sport Coaches
(D) Expert Engineers
103. The author of ‘Gitagovinda’ was—
(A) Halayudha
(B) Jayadeva
(C) Kalhana
(D) Jona-Raja
104. Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’ ?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(D) Abdul Gaffar Khan
105. Baba Amte is famous as a ………
(A) Painter
(B) Singer
(C) Politician
(D) Social Worker
106. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State ?
(A) Sushila Nayar
(B) Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Sulochan Modi
107. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna ?
(A) Martin Luther King
(B) Zubin Mehta
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
108. Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharathanatyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
109. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ravi Shankar–Sitarist
(B) M.F. Hussain–Tabla
(C) R.K. Narayan–Novelist
(D) Kaifi Azmi–Poet
110. Who said, “You give me blood, I will give you freedom” ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bhagat Singh
111. Nobel Prizes are not given for which of the following fields ?
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Peace
(D) Music
112. When is the ‘International Women’s Day’ observed ?
(A) March 8
(B) February 14
(C) May 10
(D) October 2
113. Indra Nooyi is the Chief Executive Officer of which company ?
(A) Pepsi
(B) Coca Cola
(C) LG
(D) Samsung
114. The 2008 Olympics will be held in—
(A) London
(B) Sydney
(C) Beijing
(D) Seoul
115. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history of India because this date is associated with ……
(A) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Quit India Movement
(C) Partition of Bengal
(D) Partition of India
116. The concept of ‘Din-e-Elahi’ was founded by which king ?
(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Akbar
(C) Shershah Suri
(D) Shahjahan
117. The central point in Ashoka’s Dharma was—
(A) Loyalty to kings
(B) Peace and non-violence
(C) Respect to elders
(D) Religious toleration
118. Mahatma Gandhi for the first time practiced his Satyagraha in India at—
(A) Chauri-Chaura
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Champaran
(D) Nauokhali
119. ‘Do or Die’ was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Gandhiji
(B) J.L. Nehru
(C) Balgangadhar Tilak
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
120. Who among the following formed a party named as ‘Forward Block’ ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(C) Chandrashekhar Azad
(D) J.L. Nehru
121. Where are the Dilwara Temple’s located ?
(A) Shravana Belgola
(B) Parasnath Hills
(C) Indore
(D) Mt. Abu
122. Who was the first Indian lady to preside over the Congress ?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Vijaylakshmi Pandit
(D) Amrita Shergill
123. In India, there are three crop seasons. Two of them are Kharif and Rabi, name the third one ?
(A) Barsati
(B) Grama
(C) Zaid
(D) Khari
124. In India agriculture of jute is maximum on which Delta area ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godavari
125. The most discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Haryana
(D) Uttarakhand
126. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kota — Chambal
(B) Bhubaneshwar — Mahanadi
(C) Jabalpur — Narmada
(D) Surat — Tapti
127. Which is the India’s largest lake ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Sambhar
(C) Sishram
(D) Chilka
128. Which of the following States has rich forest of sandalwood ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Madhya Pradesh
129. Which of the following is the smallest ocean of the world ?
(A) Pacific
(B) Indian
(C) Atlantic
(D) Arctic
130. The Hirakud Project is on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Damodar
(D) Kosi
131. The name of the galaxy, in which the earth is a planet, is—
(A) Andromeda
(B) Ursa Major
(C) Ursa Minor
(D) Milky Way
132. Which national park is known for the Great Indian one-horned Rhinoceros ?
(A) Dudhwa
(B) Kanha
(C) Kaziranga
(D) Gir
133. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the—
(A) Yamuna Canal
(B) Sirhind Canal
(C) Indira Gandhi Canal
(D) Upper Bari Doab Canal
134. Where does Chambal river originate from ?
(A) Bhind
(B) Ratlam
(C) Mhow
(D) Ujjain
135. Which of the following river is known as ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ ?
(A) Damodar
(B) Gandak
(C) Kosi
(D) Sone
136. The largest public sector bank in India is—
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Indian Overseas Bank
137. Who gives recognition t o political parties in India ?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Election Commission
138. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Amendment Procedure ?
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 367
(D) All these
139. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to resign, he should submit his resignation to the—
(A) Judges of the High Court
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Finance Minister
140. When the offices of both the President and Vice President of India are vacant, who will discharge their functions ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) The Speaker
141. Sharda Act deals with—
(A) Widow Remarriage
(B) Child Marriage
(C) Inter-caste Marriage
(D) Polygamy
142. ‘Hemophilia’ is the disease of—
(A) Liver
(B) Blood
(C) Brain
(D) Bones
143. Which of the following is present in Tobacco ?
(A) Nicotine
(B) Heroin
(C) Marijuana
(D) Cocaine
144. These days yellow lamps are frequently used as street-light. Which one of the following is used in these lamps ?
(A) Sodium
(B) Neon
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Nitrogen
145. Raja Harishchandra, an early Indian film, was produced by—
(A) D. G. Phalke
(B) Ashok Kumar
(C) Ardeshir Irani
(D) None of these
146. Who composed the song ‘Jara Yaad Karo Kurbani’ ?
(A) Javed Akhtar
(B) Pradeep
(C) Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan
(D) Raghupati Sahay ‘Firaq’
147. Which of the following is a folk dance of Rajasthan ?
(A) Garba
(B) Dandiya
(C) Ghoomar
(D) Kathak
148. Kuchipudi is a dance drama of which of the following States ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
149. ‘The Colonel’ is the name of which Indian test cricketer ?
(A) Colonel C.K. Naidu
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Mohinder Amarnath
(D) Dilip Vengsarkar
150. Deodhar Trophy is related to which sport ?
(A) Volleyball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Tennis
Answers :
101. (C) 102. (C) 103. (B) 104. (A) 105. (D) 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (D) 109. (B) 110. (C)
111. (D) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (C) 115. (A) 116. (B) 117. (D) 118. (C) 119. (A) 120. (A)
121. (D) 122. (B) 123. (C) 124. (A) 125. (D) 126. (B) 127. (D) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (B)
131. (D) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (C) 135. (A) 136. (C) 137. (D) 138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (A) 144. (A) 145. (A) 146. (B) 147. (C) 148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (C)
(A) Swimming
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Shooting
(D) Archery
102. ‘The Dronacharya Award’ is associated with—
(A) Eminent Surgeons
(B) Famous Artists
(C) Sport Coaches
(D) Expert Engineers
103. The author of ‘Gitagovinda’ was—
(A) Halayudha
(B) Jayadeva
(C) Kalhana
(D) Jona-Raja
104. Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’ ?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(D) Abdul Gaffar Khan
105. Baba Amte is famous as a ………
(A) Painter
(B) Singer
(C) Politician
(D) Social Worker
106. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State ?
(A) Sushila Nayar
(B) Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Sulochan Modi
107. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna ?
(A) Martin Luther King
(B) Zubin Mehta
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
108. Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharathanatyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
109. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ravi Shankar–Sitarist
(B) M.F. Hussain–Tabla
(C) R.K. Narayan–Novelist
(D) Kaifi Azmi–Poet
110. Who said, “You give me blood, I will give you freedom” ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bhagat Singh
111. Nobel Prizes are not given for which of the following fields ?
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Peace
(D) Music
112. When is the ‘International Women’s Day’ observed ?
(A) March 8
(B) February 14
(C) May 10
(D) October 2
113. Indra Nooyi is the Chief Executive Officer of which company ?
(A) Pepsi
(B) Coca Cola
(C) LG
(D) Samsung
114. The 2008 Olympics will be held in—
(A) London
(B) Sydney
(C) Beijing
(D) Seoul
115. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history of India because this date is associated with ……
(A) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Quit India Movement
(C) Partition of Bengal
(D) Partition of India
116. The concept of ‘Din-e-Elahi’ was founded by which king ?
(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Akbar
(C) Shershah Suri
(D) Shahjahan
117. The central point in Ashoka’s Dharma was—
(A) Loyalty to kings
(B) Peace and non-violence
(C) Respect to elders
(D) Religious toleration
118. Mahatma Gandhi for the first time practiced his Satyagraha in India at—
(A) Chauri-Chaura
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Champaran
(D) Nauokhali
119. ‘Do or Die’ was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Gandhiji
(B) J.L. Nehru
(C) Balgangadhar Tilak
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
120. Who among the following formed a party named as ‘Forward Block’ ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(C) Chandrashekhar Azad
(D) J.L. Nehru
121. Where are the Dilwara Temple’s located ?
(A) Shravana Belgola
(B) Parasnath Hills
(C) Indore
(D) Mt. Abu
122. Who was the first Indian lady to preside over the Congress ?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Vijaylakshmi Pandit
(D) Amrita Shergill
123. In India, there are three crop seasons. Two of them are Kharif and Rabi, name the third one ?
(A) Barsati
(B) Grama
(C) Zaid
(D) Khari
124. In India agriculture of jute is maximum on which Delta area ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godavari
125. The most discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Haryana
(D) Uttarakhand
126. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kota — Chambal
(B) Bhubaneshwar — Mahanadi
(C) Jabalpur — Narmada
(D) Surat — Tapti
127. Which is the India’s largest lake ?
(A) Nainital
(B) Sambhar
(C) Sishram
(D) Chilka
128. Which of the following States has rich forest of sandalwood ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Madhya Pradesh
129. Which of the following is the smallest ocean of the world ?
(A) Pacific
(B) Indian
(C) Atlantic
(D) Arctic
130. The Hirakud Project is on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Damodar
(D) Kosi
131. The name of the galaxy, in which the earth is a planet, is—
(A) Andromeda
(B) Ursa Major
(C) Ursa Minor
(D) Milky Way
132. Which national park is known for the Great Indian one-horned Rhinoceros ?
(A) Dudhwa
(B) Kanha
(C) Kaziranga
(D) Gir
133. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the—
(A) Yamuna Canal
(B) Sirhind Canal
(C) Indira Gandhi Canal
(D) Upper Bari Doab Canal
134. Where does Chambal river originate from ?
(A) Bhind
(B) Ratlam
(C) Mhow
(D) Ujjain
135. Which of the following river is known as ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ ?
(A) Damodar
(B) Gandak
(C) Kosi
(D) Sone
136. The largest public sector bank in India is—
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Indian Overseas Bank
137. Who gives recognition t o political parties in India ?
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Election Commission
138. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Amendment Procedure ?
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 367
(D) All these
139. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to resign, he should submit his resignation to the—
(A) Judges of the High Court
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Finance Minister
140. When the offices of both the President and Vice President of India are vacant, who will discharge their functions ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) The Speaker
141. Sharda Act deals with—
(A) Widow Remarriage
(B) Child Marriage
(C) Inter-caste Marriage
(D) Polygamy
142. ‘Hemophilia’ is the disease of—
(A) Liver
(B) Blood
(C) Brain
(D) Bones
143. Which of the following is present in Tobacco ?
(A) Nicotine
(B) Heroin
(C) Marijuana
(D) Cocaine
144. These days yellow lamps are frequently used as street-light. Which one of the following is used in these lamps ?
(A) Sodium
(B) Neon
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Nitrogen
145. Raja Harishchandra, an early Indian film, was produced by—
(A) D. G. Phalke
(B) Ashok Kumar
(C) Ardeshir Irani
(D) None of these
146. Who composed the song ‘Jara Yaad Karo Kurbani’ ?
(A) Javed Akhtar
(B) Pradeep
(C) Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan
(D) Raghupati Sahay ‘Firaq’
147. Which of the following is a folk dance of Rajasthan ?
(A) Garba
(B) Dandiya
(C) Ghoomar
(D) Kathak
148. Kuchipudi is a dance drama of which of the following States ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
149. ‘The Colonel’ is the name of which Indian test cricketer ?
(A) Colonel C.K. Naidu
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Mohinder Amarnath
(D) Dilip Vengsarkar
150. Deodhar Trophy is related to which sport ?
(A) Volleyball
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Tennis
Answers :
101. (C) 102. (C) 103. (B) 104. (A) 105. (D) 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (D) 109. (B) 110. (C)
111. (D) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (C) 115. (A) 116. (B) 117. (D) 118. (C) 119. (A) 120. (A)
121. (D) 122. (B) 123. (C) 124. (A) 125. (D) 126. (B) 127. (D) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (B)
131. (D) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (C) 135. (A) 136. (C) 137. (D) 138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (A) 144. (A) 145. (A) 146. (B) 147. (C) 148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (C)
51. What will be most appropriate in case students conduct indecently ?
(A) To make them fell guilty
(B) To get very angry upon them
(C) To punish them
(D) To make them feel ashamed by preaching
52. Presently, the schools are not able to fulfil the following—
(A) Development of moral values
(B) Development of competence for financial prosperity
(C) Preparation of examinations for various degrees
(D) Development of affection and fraternity among children
53. Which of the following is most appropriate for a community school ?
(A) To lead the society
(B) To be the centre of social life
(C) To remain engaged in social activities
(D) To be honoured by society
54. The main task of a teacher is—
(A) to prepare good citizens from his students
(B) to compelte the prescribed syllabus
(C) to increase knowledge
(D) to do politics in the school
55. What should be the attitude of a teacher towards his students in the class ?
(A) Discriminating
(B) He should pay more attention to weak students
(C) Equal for all students
(D) He should pay more attention to intelligent students
56. A teacher should be involved in social activities—
(A) seldom
(B) only when needed
(C) very frequently
(D) never
57. On a student’s repetitive failure in examination, you will—
(A) ridicule him
(B) advise him to sit at home and do some job
(C) advise him to appear in examination privately
(D) guide him in various subjects according to his needs
58. Why is the parents-Teachers Association considered to be important ?
(A) This helps the school function properly
(B) This helps in understanding students in a better way
(C) This helps in solving the students’ problem
(D) This helps the teachers and parents coming closer
59. What will you do to inclucate the sense of dignity of labour among your students ?
(A) You will present examples before them
(B) You will place real situation before them
(C) You will engage youself in a labour related work before them
(D) You will lecture on dignity of labour
60. What will be the consequence of encouraging women education, in your opinion ?
(A) The society will progress
(B) It will improve the financial position of women
(C) It will hamper the domestic chores
(D) It will make women independent
61. Which social quality of a teacher enhances his respect ?
(A) Camp organization for students
(B) Poem recitation
(C) Literary interests
(D) Community service
62. What is the objective of teaching Arithmetic in modern primary classes ?
(A) To help students solve real problems
(B) To impart the knowledge of various formulae and principles to students
(C) To provide knowledge of square roots, L.C.M. and H.C.M. to students
(D) The familiarise students with the Laws of Simple Mathematics and Tables
63. Syllabus at primary level should be inclined towards—
(A) Course-content
(B) Social development
(C) Exercises on comprehensive subjects
(D) All the aspects of child growth.
64. Co-curricular activities outside the class-room are given a definite place in the schoolplanning
because—
(A) it helps the school in getting recognition from government
(B) it helps the high school to reach at par with college
(C) it helps the weak students exhibit their talent in other fields
(D) it enriches the school’s teaching programme
65. The purpose of student-council is to—
(A) develop the ability of self-discipline in students
(B) simplify the problems of school management committee
(C) help the Principal in gauging the morale of various students groups and organizations
(D) involve the students in the soultion of school related problems
66. What should the Teacher’s Association do if the Management Committee refuses to accept the demands of teachers ?
(A) Take help from Parents Association to pressurize the Management Committee
(B) Take help from students to pressurize the Management Committee
(C) Teachers’ representatives should talk to the Management Committee
(D) Should go on strike to put pressure on the Management Committee
67. What should be the basis of an effecitve and successful leadership ?
(A) Personal interest
(B) Service of the group
(C) Welfare of the whole group
(D) Praise
68. What should a Principal do about justified demands of the student union ?
(A) Forward their demands to higher authorities
(B) Accept the demands after discussion
(C) Take decision after the incidents of strike and violence
(D) Bring the students on track after scolding them
69. What is advantage to students of participating in team sports ?
(A) Presentation of discipline
(B) Development of leadership qualities
(C) Enjoyment of sports and play
(D) Presentation of strength
70. What is the main responsibility of a classteacher ?
(A) To maintain discipline among the students
(B) To collect fees from students
(C) To maintain all records of the students of the class
(D) To remain alert about the health of students of class
71. …… is essential for the leadership quality.
(A) Social maturity
(B) High intellectual competence
(C) Beauty
(D) Adequate money
72. In your opinion the government sponsored Tree-Plantation Programme is.
(A) only for beautification
(B) for monetary gains
(C) necessary
(D) of no use
73. You remain …… for the fulfilment of your responsibilities.
(A) worried
(B) conscious
(C) careless
(D) Do nothing
74. To-day’s youth is wasting his time in useless activities. What will you do to make him understand the importance of time ?
(A) You will lecture him upon the importance of time
(B) You will reward the students who utilize their time properly
(C) You will set an example by utilizing your time
(D) You will punish those students who waste time
75. You are invited as chief guest in a function. You will—
(A) reach there on time
(B) reach late and fell proud
(C) reach before time
(D) reach late and apologize
76. If you want to reform education, you will begin at—
(A) Primary Level
(B) Secondary Level
(C) Graduate Level
(D) At any level
77. Ideal education is helpful in the following—
(A) A person’s livelihood
(B) A person’s self-dependence
(C) Enhancement in a person’s prestige
(D) Making a person into an intellectual
78. If you win a lottery, what will you do with the money ?
(A) Purchase a house
(B) Visit tourist places
(C) Purchase a car
(D) Open a school
79. Following is a mean of ‘Distance Education’—
(A) Television
(B) Radio
(C) Newspaper
(D) Magazines
80. Why is the knowledge of first-aid essential for a teacher ?
(A) Students may need first-aid any time
(B) Teacher needs it for his own health
(C) For the treatment of children, when they get injured in sports ground
(D) It increases the knowledge of a teacher
81. Adult education is for—
(A) illiterate adults
(B) school going adults
(C) normal adult people
(D) All of these
82. When your student performs well you will—
(A) express your happiness
(B) admire him
(C) feel jealous
(D) remain quiet
83. Generally, if students are informed about their performances soon after the examination is over, it is effective in—
(A) humiliating them
(B) punishing them
(C) tempting them
(D) strengthening their inspiration
84. What should be done to maintain discipline among students ?
(A) They should be asked questions
(B) They should be entrusted with responsibility
(C) They should be prevented from making noise
(D) They should be made to follow rules
85. Which quality is most important for students ?
(A) Hard work
(B) Obedience
(C) Humility
(D) Independent thinking
86. What will you do if your students do not take interest in studies ?
(A) You will take interest in your teaching
(B) You will make your teaching more interesting
(C) You will give examples of meritorious students
(D) You will try to know the reason for lack of interest
87. Generally, it is believed that a teacher should be ………… with the students.
(A) strict and unapproachable
(B) strict and introvert
(C) respectable, but friendly
(D) independent and approachable
88. If a student is not able to answer in your class then you will—
(A) ask another student to answer
(B) ask easier question
(C) punish him
(D) ask him to sit down
89. What will be your reaction when an otherwise punctual student comes late in your class ?
(A) You will ignore it
(B) You will try to know the reason for coming late
(C) You will scold him before other students in the class
(D) Ask him to leave the class
90. If a student avoids meeting others then—
(A) he should be left alone
(B) he should be involved in group activities
(C) he should be asked to meet others
(D) he should be compelled to meet his classmates
91. You worship God because—
(A) your friends tell you to do so
(B) it gives you inner strength
(C) you have religious atmosphere at home
(D) you fear God
92. Which of the following is most appropriate about your honesty ?
(A) I am the most honest person
(B) I have done all my tasks with a sense of duty
(C) I never accepted any gift for any work
(D) I have turned down so many tempting offers
93. If a person talks bad about your parents before you, what will you do ?
(A) Tell him to shut up
(B) Listen him carefully
(C) Break relationship with him
(D) Join him in this act
94. What is the most effective way to reform the aggressive behaviour of a child ?
(A) He should be kept in isolation
(B) Reasons for this behaviour should be investigated
(C) He should be punished severely
(D) He should be ignored
95. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of school on time ?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
96. What should a teacher do when examinations are near ?
(A) Complete the syllabus by calling students at his home
(B) Complete the syllabus by devoting extra time in school
(C) Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
(D) Help them solving with important questions
97. How will you resolve you differences with your colleague ?
(A) By arguing before other colleagues
(B) Complain to the Principal
(C) Resolve it mutually by trying to know the reason for this
(D) By ridiculing him
98. What is essential for the self-confidence of a teacher ?
(A) Authority on subject
(B) Social
(C) Attractive personality
(D) Richness
99. All teachers in school should be punctual because—
(A) this will make students also punctual
(B) students will understand the importance of time
(C) this will inculcate good habit in students
(D) Students become carefree
100. There is fear of social-evils affecting the schools. What will be your attitude to prevent it ?
(A) Optimistic
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Similar to other teachers
(D) Indifferent
Answers:
51. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
52. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
53. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
54. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
55. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
56. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) –1
57. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
58. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
59. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
60. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
61. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
62. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
63. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
64. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
65. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
66. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
67. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
68. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
69. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
70. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
71. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
72. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
73. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
74. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) – 1
75. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
76. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
77. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
78. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
79. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
80. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
81. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
82. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
83. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
84. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 2
85. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
86. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
87. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
88. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
89. (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) – 1
90. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
91. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
92. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
93. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
94. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
95. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
96. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
97. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
98. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
99. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
100. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
(A) To make them fell guilty
(B) To get very angry upon them
(C) To punish them
(D) To make them feel ashamed by preaching
52. Presently, the schools are not able to fulfil the following—
(A) Development of moral values
(B) Development of competence for financial prosperity
(C) Preparation of examinations for various degrees
(D) Development of affection and fraternity among children
53. Which of the following is most appropriate for a community school ?
(A) To lead the society
(B) To be the centre of social life
(C) To remain engaged in social activities
(D) To be honoured by society
54. The main task of a teacher is—
(A) to prepare good citizens from his students
(B) to compelte the prescribed syllabus
(C) to increase knowledge
(D) to do politics in the school
55. What should be the attitude of a teacher towards his students in the class ?
(A) Discriminating
(B) He should pay more attention to weak students
(C) Equal for all students
(D) He should pay more attention to intelligent students
56. A teacher should be involved in social activities—
(A) seldom
(B) only when needed
(C) very frequently
(D) never
57. On a student’s repetitive failure in examination, you will—
(A) ridicule him
(B) advise him to sit at home and do some job
(C) advise him to appear in examination privately
(D) guide him in various subjects according to his needs
58. Why is the parents-Teachers Association considered to be important ?
(A) This helps the school function properly
(B) This helps in understanding students in a better way
(C) This helps in solving the students’ problem
(D) This helps the teachers and parents coming closer
59. What will you do to inclucate the sense of dignity of labour among your students ?
(A) You will present examples before them
(B) You will place real situation before them
(C) You will engage youself in a labour related work before them
(D) You will lecture on dignity of labour
60. What will be the consequence of encouraging women education, in your opinion ?
(A) The society will progress
(B) It will improve the financial position of women
(C) It will hamper the domestic chores
(D) It will make women independent
61. Which social quality of a teacher enhances his respect ?
(A) Camp organization for students
(B) Poem recitation
(C) Literary interests
(D) Community service
62. What is the objective of teaching Arithmetic in modern primary classes ?
(A) To help students solve real problems
(B) To impart the knowledge of various formulae and principles to students
(C) To provide knowledge of square roots, L.C.M. and H.C.M. to students
(D) The familiarise students with the Laws of Simple Mathematics and Tables
63. Syllabus at primary level should be inclined towards—
(A) Course-content
(B) Social development
(C) Exercises on comprehensive subjects
(D) All the aspects of child growth.
64. Co-curricular activities outside the class-room are given a definite place in the schoolplanning
because—
(A) it helps the school in getting recognition from government
(B) it helps the high school to reach at par with college
(C) it helps the weak students exhibit their talent in other fields
(D) it enriches the school’s teaching programme
65. The purpose of student-council is to—
(A) develop the ability of self-discipline in students
(B) simplify the problems of school management committee
(C) help the Principal in gauging the morale of various students groups and organizations
(D) involve the students in the soultion of school related problems
66. What should the Teacher’s Association do if the Management Committee refuses to accept the demands of teachers ?
(A) Take help from Parents Association to pressurize the Management Committee
(B) Take help from students to pressurize the Management Committee
(C) Teachers’ representatives should talk to the Management Committee
(D) Should go on strike to put pressure on the Management Committee
67. What should be the basis of an effecitve and successful leadership ?
(A) Personal interest
(B) Service of the group
(C) Welfare of the whole group
(D) Praise
68. What should a Principal do about justified demands of the student union ?
(A) Forward their demands to higher authorities
(B) Accept the demands after discussion
(C) Take decision after the incidents of strike and violence
(D) Bring the students on track after scolding them
69. What is advantage to students of participating in team sports ?
(A) Presentation of discipline
(B) Development of leadership qualities
(C) Enjoyment of sports and play
(D) Presentation of strength
70. What is the main responsibility of a classteacher ?
(A) To maintain discipline among the students
(B) To collect fees from students
(C) To maintain all records of the students of the class
(D) To remain alert about the health of students of class
71. …… is essential for the leadership quality.
(A) Social maturity
(B) High intellectual competence
(C) Beauty
(D) Adequate money
72. In your opinion the government sponsored Tree-Plantation Programme is.
(A) only for beautification
(B) for monetary gains
(C) necessary
(D) of no use
73. You remain …… for the fulfilment of your responsibilities.
(A) worried
(B) conscious
(C) careless
(D) Do nothing
74. To-day’s youth is wasting his time in useless activities. What will you do to make him understand the importance of time ?
(A) You will lecture him upon the importance of time
(B) You will reward the students who utilize their time properly
(C) You will set an example by utilizing your time
(D) You will punish those students who waste time
75. You are invited as chief guest in a function. You will—
(A) reach there on time
(B) reach late and fell proud
(C) reach before time
(D) reach late and apologize
76. If you want to reform education, you will begin at—
(A) Primary Level
(B) Secondary Level
(C) Graduate Level
(D) At any level
77. Ideal education is helpful in the following—
(A) A person’s livelihood
(B) A person’s self-dependence
(C) Enhancement in a person’s prestige
(D) Making a person into an intellectual
78. If you win a lottery, what will you do with the money ?
(A) Purchase a house
(B) Visit tourist places
(C) Purchase a car
(D) Open a school
79. Following is a mean of ‘Distance Education’—
(A) Television
(B) Radio
(C) Newspaper
(D) Magazines
80. Why is the knowledge of first-aid essential for a teacher ?
(A) Students may need first-aid any time
(B) Teacher needs it for his own health
(C) For the treatment of children, when they get injured in sports ground
(D) It increases the knowledge of a teacher
81. Adult education is for—
(A) illiterate adults
(B) school going adults
(C) normal adult people
(D) All of these
82. When your student performs well you will—
(A) express your happiness
(B) admire him
(C) feel jealous
(D) remain quiet
83. Generally, if students are informed about their performances soon after the examination is over, it is effective in—
(A) humiliating them
(B) punishing them
(C) tempting them
(D) strengthening their inspiration
84. What should be done to maintain discipline among students ?
(A) They should be asked questions
(B) They should be entrusted with responsibility
(C) They should be prevented from making noise
(D) They should be made to follow rules
85. Which quality is most important for students ?
(A) Hard work
(B) Obedience
(C) Humility
(D) Independent thinking
86. What will you do if your students do not take interest in studies ?
(A) You will take interest in your teaching
(B) You will make your teaching more interesting
(C) You will give examples of meritorious students
(D) You will try to know the reason for lack of interest
87. Generally, it is believed that a teacher should be ………… with the students.
(A) strict and unapproachable
(B) strict and introvert
(C) respectable, but friendly
(D) independent and approachable
88. If a student is not able to answer in your class then you will—
(A) ask another student to answer
(B) ask easier question
(C) punish him
(D) ask him to sit down
89. What will be your reaction when an otherwise punctual student comes late in your class ?
(A) You will ignore it
(B) You will try to know the reason for coming late
(C) You will scold him before other students in the class
(D) Ask him to leave the class
90. If a student avoids meeting others then—
(A) he should be left alone
(B) he should be involved in group activities
(C) he should be asked to meet others
(D) he should be compelled to meet his classmates
91. You worship God because—
(A) your friends tell you to do so
(B) it gives you inner strength
(C) you have religious atmosphere at home
(D) you fear God
92. Which of the following is most appropriate about your honesty ?
(A) I am the most honest person
(B) I have done all my tasks with a sense of duty
(C) I never accepted any gift for any work
(D) I have turned down so many tempting offers
93. If a person talks bad about your parents before you, what will you do ?
(A) Tell him to shut up
(B) Listen him carefully
(C) Break relationship with him
(D) Join him in this act
94. What is the most effective way to reform the aggressive behaviour of a child ?
(A) He should be kept in isolation
(B) Reasons for this behaviour should be investigated
(C) He should be punished severely
(D) He should be ignored
95. What will you do as Principal if a teacher of the school does not come to a function of school on time ?
(A) You will ask him to meet you after the function is over
(B) You will complain this to the management committee of the school
(C) You will scold him before everyone
(D) You will tell him about his responsibilities
96. What should a teacher do when examinations are near ?
(A) Complete the syllabus by calling students at his home
(B) Complete the syllabus by devoting extra time in school
(C) Ask the students to complete the syllabus themselves
(D) Help them solving with important questions
97. How will you resolve you differences with your colleague ?
(A) By arguing before other colleagues
(B) Complain to the Principal
(C) Resolve it mutually by trying to know the reason for this
(D) By ridiculing him
98. What is essential for the self-confidence of a teacher ?
(A) Authority on subject
(B) Social
(C) Attractive personality
(D) Richness
99. All teachers in school should be punctual because—
(A) this will make students also punctual
(B) students will understand the importance of time
(C) this will inculcate good habit in students
(D) Students become carefree
100. There is fear of social-evils affecting the schools. What will be your attitude to prevent it ?
(A) Optimistic
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Similar to other teachers
(D) Indifferent
Answers:
51. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
52. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
53. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
54. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
55. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
56. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) –1
57. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
58. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
59. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
60. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
61. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
62. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 2
63. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
64. (A) 2 (B) – 1 (C) 0 (D) 3
65. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
66. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
67. (A) – 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
68. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
69. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
70. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
71. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
72. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
73. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
74. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) – 1
75. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
76. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
77. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) – 1
78. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
79. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
80. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
81. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
82. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
83. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
84. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 2
85. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
86. (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 3
87. (A) 0 (B) – 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
88. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0
89. (A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) – 1
90. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
91. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
92. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
93. (A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) – 1
94. (A) – 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0
95. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) – 1 (D) 3
96. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) – 1 (D) 0
97. (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) – 1
98. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
99. (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) – 1
100. (A) 3 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0
1. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row ?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
37. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
38. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
39. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
47. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
49. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
2. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank ?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
3. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to ……….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
4. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to ……….
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
5. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to ……….
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
6. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to ……….
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) based on the alphabets.
7. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left ?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
8. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
9. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right ?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
10. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series ?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
11. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer : ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
12. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
13. acme : mace : : alga : ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
14. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
15. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
16. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D) G
17. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
18. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
19. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(B) 49
(C) 52
(D) 56
20. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code ?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
21. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTT
22. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
23. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
24. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
25. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
26. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
27. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
28. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
29. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
30. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo ?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
31. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
32. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight ?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
33. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
34. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
35. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7 ?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Directions—(Q. 36 to 39) Select the one which is different from the other three.
36. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
37. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
38. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
39. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5 ?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
42 If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……….
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Directions—(Q. 45 to 50) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
45. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
46 (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
47. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
48. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
49. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
50. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Answers :
1. (D) 2. (B)
3. (D) As ‘Soldier’ is a part of ‘Army’ in the same way ‘Pupil’ is a part of ‘Class’.
4. (D)
5. (B) As ‘Stammering’ is a defect of ‘Speech’ in the same way ‘Deafness’ is a defect of ‘Hearing’.
6. (B)
7. (D) The 14th letter from the left in the sequence of alphabet when it is reversed, is M.
8. (B) The letter 12th from the left in alphabet is L and the 8th letter to the right of ‘L’ is ‘T’.
9. (C) The last but one letter from the right is Y and from Y the 10th letter to left is O and from O, 8th letter to the right is ‘W’.
10. (A)
11. (B) As the tool for ‘Typist’ is ‘Typewriter’, similarly the tool for the writer is ‘Pen’.
12. (D) As ‘Paint’ is used by ‘Artist’, similarly ‘Wood’ is used by ‘Carpenter’.
13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (C) As ‘Medicine’ cures the ‘Patient’, similarly ‘Education’ educates the ‘Student’.
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (B)
23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (C) The application was received by the inward clerk on Wednesday.
32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A)
35. (A) Reqd. ‘5’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
36. (D) All the rest cities are famous for Ironindustry.
37. (B) Each of the rest month has thirtyone days.
38. (B) All the rest are religious books.
39. (C) All the rest are heavenly bodies.
40. (C) Reqd. ‘8’s are printed boldly in the sequence below :
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
41. (D) 42. (D)
43. (B) As ‘Birds’ fly in ‘Air’, similarly ‘Fish’ swim in ‘Water’.
44. (B) As ‘Pencil’ is used for ‘Writing’, similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Peel’.
45. (C) All the rest are different ‘colours’.
46. (A) All the rest are related with water.
47. (A) All the rest are indoor games.
48. (B) All the rest heavenly bodies.
49. (B) All the rest products are made from ‘Milk’.
50. (D) All the rest grow under ground.
141. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Dormant’—
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active
142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow
143. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial
144. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest
145. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist
146. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic
147. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial
148. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive
149. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of
150. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive
151. Choose the passive voice of—‘Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?
152. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’—
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard
153. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over
154. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On
155. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron
156. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte
157. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare
158. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles
159. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period
160. Which of the following is not a language skill?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking
Answers :
(A) Inert
(B) Deaf
(C) Indulgence
(D) Active
142. Choose the word opposite in meaning to ‘Malignant’—
(A) Virulent
(B) Benign
(C) Prudent
(D) Swallow
143. The word ‘Tacit’ means—
(A) Formal
(B) Fear
(C) Silent
(D) Celestial
144. The word ‘Enunciate’ means—
(A) Matter
(B) Express
(C) Evil
(D) Detest
145. ‘One who is well-versed in the science of languages is called a—
(A) Philosopher
(B) Theologist
(C) Philologist
(D) Zoologist
146. ‘A person who abstains from all kinds of alcoholic drinks’ is called a—
(A) Drunkard
(B) Angler
(C) Teetotaller
(D) Heretic
147. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Coloqial
(B) Coloquial
(C) Colloqial
(D) Colloquial
148. Choose the misspelt word—
(A) Percieve
(B) Believe
(C) Relieve
(D) Receive
149. Choose what expresses the meaning of the phrase ‘a black sheep’—
(A) Stranger
(B) Convict
(C) Gentleman
(D) A family member one disapproves of
150. Choose what expresses the meaning of ‘pull the wool over one’s eye’—
(A) Delay
(B) Encourage
(C) Suppress
(D) Deceive
151. Choose the passive voice of—‘Who ate my cheese?’
(A) By whom is my cheese being eaten ?
(B) By whom was my cheese eaten ?
(C) By whom will my cheese be eaten ?
(D) By whom was my cheese been eaten ?
152. Choose the indirect speech of—My father said, ‘Study hard’—
(A) My father scolded me to study hard
(B) My father asked me to study hard
(C) My father requested me to study hard
(D) My father said that I must study hard
153. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
My father is angry …… me.
(A) On
(B) With
(C) In
(D) Over
154. Choose the most appropriate word to fill in the blank in the sentence—
Trust …… God, and do your duty.
(A) Of
(B) With
(C) In
(D) On
155. Who wrote the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Keats
(B) Shelley
(C) Wordsworth
(D) Byron
156. Who wrote the novel ‘A Tale of Two Cities’ ?
(A) Austen
(B) Dickens
(C) Hardy
(D) Bronte
157. Who wrote the play ‘All’s well that ends well’ ?
(A) Brecht
(B) Eugene O’Neill
(C) Shaw
(D) Shakespeare
158. Farmer Boldwood and Sergeant Troy are characters in the novel—
(A) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(B) Far from the Madding Crowd
(C) The Return of the Native
(D) Tess of the d’Urbervilles
159. Robert Browning was a poet of which period in literature ?
(A) Age of Reason
(B) Romantic Period
(C) Victorian Period
(D) Modern Period
160. Which of the following is not a language skill?
(A) Reading
(B) Writing
(C) Thinking
(D) Speaking
Answers :
141. (D) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (D)
148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (D) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (C) 156. (B) 157. (D)158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)
148. (A) 149. (D) 150. (D) 151. (B) 152. (B)
153. (B) 154. (C) 155. (C) 156. (B) 157. (D)158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)
121. The Treaty of Sreerangapattanam was between Tipu Sultan and—
(A) Cornwallis
(B) Clive
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Wellesley
122. The famous Besnagar Pillar Inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult of—
(A) Panchika and Hariti
(B) Pashupatis
(C) Krishna-Vasudeva
(D) Shakti
123. What is a water hyacinth ?
(A) A weed
(B) A medicinal plant
(C) A decorative plant
(D) A highly sought after plant
124. To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for recommendations ?
(A) Ordinary bills
(B) Finance bills
(C) Bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
(D) Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution
125. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of—
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Switzerland
(D) South Africa
126. Indian Railways tied up with which of the following to launch a co-branded card and
traveller loyalty card to tap the huge railway passengers market ?
(A) BoB card
(B) Citibank card
(C) SBI card
(D) None of these
127. Which bank advertises itself as the world’s local bank ?
(A) Citibank
(B) HSBC
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) ABN Amro
128. In which state is Silent Valley located ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
129. Which of the following is not a promotional and motivational measure suggested in the National Population Policy 2000 ?
(A) Reward Panchayat and Zila Parishad for promoting small family norm
(B) Incentive to adopt two child norm
(C) Couples below poverty line will be given health insurance plans
(D) Banning abortion facilities (looking at female infanticides)
130. Who said, “HANOZ DELHI DOOR AST” ?
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Farid
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) None of these
131. In which of the following constitutional documents did the British Government for the first time, officially lay down as the goal of constitutional development in India, not only dominion status, but also responsible Government ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Indian Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
132. In which state is chromite abundantly found ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
133. For what is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam known ?
(A) Bear
(B) Tiger
(C) Wild ass
(D) Birds
134. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in—
(A) Censuring a Central Minister
(B) Creating a new All India Service
(C) Considering Money Bills
(D) Appointing judges
135. Which of the following provides the largest part of the demand for loanable funds in
India ?
(A) Hire purchase borrowers
(B) Private house purchasers
(C) Corporate businesses
(D) Farmers
136. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India ?
(A) Wellesley
(B) Cavendish Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings
137. The National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI) was inaugurated in—
(A) July 1992
(B) July 1993
(C) July 1994
(D) July 1995
138. One of the major towns of the Godavari region in the Satavahana kingdom was—
(A) Pratishthana
(B) Arikamedu
(C) Kokkhai
(D) Maski
139. In the Islamic (Mughal) buildings that came up in India, the elements of decoration did not include—
(A) Calligraphy
(B) Depiction of living beings
(C) Geometry
(D) Foliage
140. Jaya is the name of a high yielding variety of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Bajra
(D) Cotton
(A) Cornwallis
(B) Clive
(C) Warren Hastings
(D) Wellesley
122. The famous Besnagar Pillar Inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult of—
(A) Panchika and Hariti
(B) Pashupatis
(C) Krishna-Vasudeva
(D) Shakti
123. What is a water hyacinth ?
(A) A weed
(B) A medicinal plant
(C) A decorative plant
(D) A highly sought after plant
124. To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for recommendations ?
(A) Ordinary bills
(B) Finance bills
(C) Bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
(D) Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution
125. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of—
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Switzerland
(D) South Africa
126. Indian Railways tied up with which of the following to launch a co-branded card and
traveller loyalty card to tap the huge railway passengers market ?
(A) BoB card
(B) Citibank card
(C) SBI card
(D) None of these
127. Which bank advertises itself as the world’s local bank ?
(A) Citibank
(B) HSBC
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) ABN Amro
128. In which state is Silent Valley located ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Assam
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
129. Which of the following is not a promotional and motivational measure suggested in the National Population Policy 2000 ?
(A) Reward Panchayat and Zila Parishad for promoting small family norm
(B) Incentive to adopt two child norm
(C) Couples below poverty line will be given health insurance plans
(D) Banning abortion facilities (looking at female infanticides)
130. Who said, “HANOZ DELHI DOOR AST” ?
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Farid
(C) Nasiruddin
(D) None of these
131. In which of the following constitutional documents did the British Government for the first time, officially lay down as the goal of constitutional development in India, not only dominion status, but also responsible Government ?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Indian Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
132. In which state is chromite abundantly found ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
133. For what is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam known ?
(A) Bear
(B) Tiger
(C) Wild ass
(D) Birds
134. The Rajya Sabha can take initiative in—
(A) Censuring a Central Minister
(B) Creating a new All India Service
(C) Considering Money Bills
(D) Appointing judges
135. Which of the following provides the largest part of the demand for loanable funds in
India ?
(A) Hire purchase borrowers
(B) Private house purchasers
(C) Corporate businesses
(D) Farmers
136. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India ?
(A) Wellesley
(B) Cavendish Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings
137. The National Stock Exchange of India (NSEI) was inaugurated in—
(A) July 1992
(B) July 1993
(C) July 1994
(D) July 1995
138. One of the major towns of the Godavari region in the Satavahana kingdom was—
(A) Pratishthana
(B) Arikamedu
(C) Kokkhai
(D) Maski
139. In the Islamic (Mughal) buildings that came up in India, the elements of decoration did not include—
(A) Calligraphy
(B) Depiction of living beings
(C) Geometry
(D) Foliage
140. Jaya is the name of a high yielding variety of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Bajra
(D) Cotton
Answers :
121. (A) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (D) 126. (C) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (D) 130. (A)
131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D)
137. (A) November 1992 (Incorporation)
April 1993 (Recognition as a stock exchange)
June 1994 (Commenced operation in the
wholesale Debt Market segment in June 1994.138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (B)
131. (C) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (D)
137. (A) November 1992 (Incorporation)
April 1993 (Recognition as a stock exchange)
June 1994 (Commenced operation in the
wholesale Debt Market segment in June 1994.138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (B)
101. The value of
102. In a mixture of 35 litres, the ratio of milk and water is 5 : 2. Another 5 litres of milk is added to the mixture. The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture is—
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
103. Walking at 4 km an hour, a peon reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. The distance of his office from the residence is—
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 2 km
104. If 5x–2·32x–3 = 135, then the value of x is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
105. The simple interest on a certain amount at 4% p.a. for 4 years is Rs. 80 more than the interest on the same sum for 3 years at 5% p.a. The sum is—
(A) Rs. 6000
(B) Rs. 7200
(C) Rs. 7500
(D) Rs. 8000
106. A trader marks an article at 30% more than the cost price. He gives 10% discount to his customers and gains Rs. 25·50 per article. The cost price of the article is—
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 175
(D) Rs. 250
107. The price of sugar is increased by 25%. How much per cent should a man decrease his consumption so that there is no increase in his expenditure ?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 5%
(D) 15%
108. Rs. 6500 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 15 more persons each would have got Rs. 30 less. The original number of persons was—
(A) 65
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 40
109. 2 men and 6 boys can do in 4 days a piece of work which would be done again in 4 days by 4 men and 3 boys. One man will do it in—
(A) 36 days
(B) 24 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 12 days
110. If sin A = 24/25, the value of tan A + sec A, where 0° < A < 90° is—
(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 24
(D) 7
111. If tan A = n sin B and sin A = m sin B, then the value of cos2 A is—
(A) m2/n2
(B) m2 × n2
(C) m2 – n2
(D) m2 + n2
112. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the hill is 30°. If the tower is 50 m high, the height of the hill is—
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 200 m
113. A steel wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 sq. cm. If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area of the circle is—
(A) 88 sq. cm
(B) 142 sq. cm
(C) 154 sq. cm
(D) 212 sq. cm
114. The number of spherical bullets that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm, if the diameter of each bullet be 4 cm, is—
(A) 2541
(B) 847
(C) 1270
(D) 363
115. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of a cylinder is 2 : 3. If its volume is 1617 cm3, the total surface area of the cylinder is—
(A) 575 cm2
(B) 770 cm2
(C) 1205 cm2
(D) 1500 cm2
116. The median of the following data is—
25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 26, 20, 32
(A) 25·5
(B) 26
(C) 26·5
(D) 25
117. The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is 80 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is—
(A) 70 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 50 kg
(D) 73 kg
118. The value of k so that the points A(k, 1), B(2, 1) and C(5,–1) are collinear is—
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
119. The common difference of the A.P. a, a + d, a + 2d,… for which the 20th term is 10 more than the 18th term, is—
(A) 4
(B) – 4
(C) – 5
(D) 5
120. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 10
is—
(A) 5/12
(B) 1/6
(C) 5/6
(D) 1/12
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
103. Walking at 4 km an hour, a peon reaches his office 5 minutes late. If he walks at 5 km an hour, he will be 4 minutes too early. The distance of his office from the residence is—
(A) 5 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 2 km
104. If 5x–2·32x–3 = 135, then the value of x is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
105. The simple interest on a certain amount at 4% p.a. for 4 years is Rs. 80 more than the interest on the same sum for 3 years at 5% p.a. The sum is—
(A) Rs. 6000
(B) Rs. 7200
(C) Rs. 7500
(D) Rs. 8000
106. A trader marks an article at 30% more than the cost price. He gives 10% discount to his customers and gains Rs. 25·50 per article. The cost price of the article is—
(A) Rs. 150
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 175
(D) Rs. 250
107. The price of sugar is increased by 25%. How much per cent should a man decrease his consumption so that there is no increase in his expenditure ?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 5%
(D) 15%
108. Rs. 6500 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been 15 more persons each would have got Rs. 30 less. The original number of persons was—
(A) 65
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 40
109. 2 men and 6 boys can do in 4 days a piece of work which would be done again in 4 days by 4 men and 3 boys. One man will do it in—
(A) 36 days
(B) 24 days
(C) 16 days
(D) 12 days
110. If sin A = 24/25, the value of tan A + sec A, where 0° < A < 90° is—
(A) 49
(B) 25
(C) 24
(D) 7
111. If tan A = n sin B and sin A = m sin B, then the value of cos2 A is—
(A) m2/n2
(B) m2 × n2
(C) m2 – n2
(D) m2 + n2
112. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the hill is 30°. If the tower is 50 m high, the height of the hill is—
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 200 m
113. A steel wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 sq. cm. If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area of the circle is—
(A) 88 sq. cm
(B) 142 sq. cm
(C) 154 sq. cm
(D) 212 sq. cm
114. The number of spherical bullets that can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm, if the diameter of each bullet be 4 cm, is—
(A) 2541
(B) 847
(C) 1270
(D) 363
115. The ratio between the radius of the base and the height of a cylinder is 2 : 3. If its volume is 1617 cm3, the total surface area of the cylinder is—
(A) 575 cm2
(B) 770 cm2
(C) 1205 cm2
(D) 1500 cm2
116. The median of the following data is—
25, 34, 31, 23, 22, 26, 35, 26, 20, 32
(A) 25·5
(B) 26
(C) 26·5
(D) 25
117. The average weight of 10 men is decreased by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is 80 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is—
(A) 70 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 50 kg
(D) 73 kg
118. The value of k so that the points A(k, 1), B(2, 1) and C(5,–1) are collinear is—
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
119. The common difference of the A.P. a, a + d, a + 2d,… for which the 20th term is 10 more than the 18th term, is—
(A) 4
(B) – 4
(C) – 5
(D) 5
120. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 10
is—
(A) 5/12
(B) 1/6
(C) 5/6
(D) 1/12
Answers :
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (D) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (D)
101. (B) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (D) 105. (D) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (B) 117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (D)
56. What would be your approach if a student interrupts in your class ?
(A) You will ask him to leave the class
(B) You will ask him to behave properly
(C) You will assess his reasons to do the same
(D) You will give him extra home-work
57. How would you prefer to address a student who has not completed his home-work ?
(A) When are you going to complete it ?
(B) You did not do it. Try it
(C) Why did you not complete it ?
(D) You better ignore it now
58. Schools should be concerned with the development of child, which should include—
(A) Acquisition of knowledge by the child
(B) Acquisition of life-skills by the child
(C) Acquisition of skills required by the nation
(D) Acquisition of skills required by a healthy person
59. The main reason for non-achievement of full literacy in India is—
(A) Lack of funds
(B) Incapability of utilization of funds
(C) Lack of suitable facilities
(D) Lack of will to achieve the goal
60. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher-Association (PTA)’ in any school is to—
(A) Keep students in check/control
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning
61. Student gives a partially correct response to your question. Then you will—
(A) Seek further information
(B) Provide reinforcement
(C) Reframe your question
(D) Tell the correct information
62. School can be called a social agent if—
(A) It transmits knowledge
(B) It educates about rights and duties
(C) It imparts knowledge about traditions and values
(D) It organises various activities
63. One basic differenc between traditional schools and open learning schools is that—
(A) The former are systematic
(B) The latter do not cultivate cultural values
(C) The latter use modern gadgets
(D) The former carry personal touch
64. School can be considered a …… group as far as socialising agency is concerned.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Supplementary
(D) Tertiary
65. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of maturation
(B) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of social process
(C) ‘Life-skills’ are directly moulded
(D) ‘Life-skills’ are learnt
66. A student wants to share his problem with his teacher and visits the teacher for the same at his home. In such a situation, the teacher should—
(A) Suggest to him to escape from his home
(B) Contact the student’s parents and provide help
(C) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
(D) Warn him to never visit his home
67. If a student alleges against you for showing favouritism in evaluation of scripts, how would you deal with him ?
(A) Reject his allegations
(B) Adopt punitive measure
(C) Make efforts to reveal his position
(D) Show his answer book and few more
68. The major responsibility with which school personnel have been entrusted is that of—
(A) Adjusting social demands to the needs of the child
(B) Adjusting the child to conform to the demands of society
(C) Changing human nature to conform to social expectations
(D) Preparing the child to change the society
69. In order to develop a good rapport with students, a teacher should (select the most important activity)—
(A) Love his students
(B) Be friendly with all
(C) Pay individual attention
(D) Communicate well
70. The best reason because of which a teacher can command respect from his students is if—
(A) He follows innovative practices in the class
(B) He dictates notes to the class
(C) He reads and explains the text-book
(D) He does not give home assignment
71. Development of moral values among students is very important. What would you do to develop the same ?
(A) Encourage moral value related works
(B) Organise lectures
(C) Display stories based on moral values
(D) Present yourself as a role model
72. Teaching aids are useful because they—
(A) Help teacher’s work
(B) Activate all senses
(C) Help students to be attentive
(D) Make learning more meaningful
73. Teacher’s class-room behaviour should be good because—
(A) It will set an example
(B) Students will be more attentive
(C) Environment would be conducive to learning
(D) Students will appreciate it
74. You have a class which is very heterogeneous in height. You should allow a seating arrangement—
(A) Which is random
(B) Where smaller students are allowed to sit in such a way that they can see and participate easily in class activities
(C) Which is purely based on height
(D) That has taller students on one side of the class
75. Which one of the following may not be the best reason for cheating in the class-room examination ?
(A) Too lazy to study
(B) Parental pressure for good marks
(C) Fear of failure
(D) Self-prestige
76. In this age of academic excellence demand, inclusion of games and sports in schools is—
(A) A wastage of time
(B) Taking away a lot of time from academic work
(C) Giving time for leisure or relaxation
(D) Necessary for the co-ordinated development of the individual
77. Which one of the following pairs is odd (or not properly associated) ?
(A) Froebel — Playway
(B) Maria Montessori — Divergent thinking
(C) Keller — Co-operative learning
(D) Gandhiji — Soiled hands
78. While teaching the concept of a ‘circle’, which one of the following would be the best way to do it ?
(A) Present a picture of a circle
(B) Present pictures of circles of various sizes
(C) Present pictures of circles and ellipses
(D) Present pictures of circles and polygons
79. Teaching would be more effective if the teacher—
(A) Makes his intent purposeful
(B) Is master of the subject
(C) Uses various instructional aids
(D) Declares his objectives in the beginning
80. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on—
(A) Development of traits to face hurdles of daily life
(B) Inculcation of values cherised by the community
(C) Preparation for academic excellence
(D) Development of traits of good citizenship
(A) You will ask him to leave the class
(B) You will ask him to behave properly
(C) You will assess his reasons to do the same
(D) You will give him extra home-work
57. How would you prefer to address a student who has not completed his home-work ?
(A) When are you going to complete it ?
(B) You did not do it. Try it
(C) Why did you not complete it ?
(D) You better ignore it now
58. Schools should be concerned with the development of child, which should include—
(A) Acquisition of knowledge by the child
(B) Acquisition of life-skills by the child
(C) Acquisition of skills required by the nation
(D) Acquisition of skills required by a healthy person
59. The main reason for non-achievement of full literacy in India is—
(A) Lack of funds
(B) Incapability of utilization of funds
(C) Lack of suitable facilities
(D) Lack of will to achieve the goal
60. The main purpose of ‘Parent-Teacher-Association (PTA)’ in any school is to—
(A) Keep students in check/control
(B) Collect additional funds for remedial teaching
(C) Share understanding of the problems faced by school
(D) Involve parents for improvement of school functioning
61. Student gives a partially correct response to your question. Then you will—
(A) Seek further information
(B) Provide reinforcement
(C) Reframe your question
(D) Tell the correct information
62. School can be called a social agent if—
(A) It transmits knowledge
(B) It educates about rights and duties
(C) It imparts knowledge about traditions and values
(D) It organises various activities
63. One basic differenc between traditional schools and open learning schools is that—
(A) The former are systematic
(B) The latter do not cultivate cultural values
(C) The latter use modern gadgets
(D) The former carry personal touch
64. School can be considered a …… group as far as socialising agency is concerned.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Supplementary
(D) Tertiary
65. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of maturation
(B) Acquisition of ‘life-skills’ is part of social process
(C) ‘Life-skills’ are directly moulded
(D) ‘Life-skills’ are learnt
66. A student wants to share his problem with his teacher and visits the teacher for the same at his home. In such a situation, the teacher should—
(A) Suggest to him to escape from his home
(B) Contact the student’s parents and provide help
(C) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
(D) Warn him to never visit his home
67. If a student alleges against you for showing favouritism in evaluation of scripts, how would you deal with him ?
(A) Reject his allegations
(B) Adopt punitive measure
(C) Make efforts to reveal his position
(D) Show his answer book and few more
68. The major responsibility with which school personnel have been entrusted is that of—
(A) Adjusting social demands to the needs of the child
(B) Adjusting the child to conform to the demands of society
(C) Changing human nature to conform to social expectations
(D) Preparing the child to change the society
69. In order to develop a good rapport with students, a teacher should (select the most important activity)—
(A) Love his students
(B) Be friendly with all
(C) Pay individual attention
(D) Communicate well
70. The best reason because of which a teacher can command respect from his students is if—
(A) He follows innovative practices in the class
(B) He dictates notes to the class
(C) He reads and explains the text-book
(D) He does not give home assignment
71. Development of moral values among students is very important. What would you do to develop the same ?
(A) Encourage moral value related works
(B) Organise lectures
(C) Display stories based on moral values
(D) Present yourself as a role model
72. Teaching aids are useful because they—
(A) Help teacher’s work
(B) Activate all senses
(C) Help students to be attentive
(D) Make learning more meaningful
73. Teacher’s class-room behaviour should be good because—
(A) It will set an example
(B) Students will be more attentive
(C) Environment would be conducive to learning
(D) Students will appreciate it
74. You have a class which is very heterogeneous in height. You should allow a seating arrangement—
(A) Which is random
(B) Where smaller students are allowed to sit in such a way that they can see and participate easily in class activities
(C) Which is purely based on height
(D) That has taller students on one side of the class
75. Which one of the following may not be the best reason for cheating in the class-room examination ?
(A) Too lazy to study
(B) Parental pressure for good marks
(C) Fear of failure
(D) Self-prestige
76. In this age of academic excellence demand, inclusion of games and sports in schools is—
(A) A wastage of time
(B) Taking away a lot of time from academic work
(C) Giving time for leisure or relaxation
(D) Necessary for the co-ordinated development of the individual
77. Which one of the following pairs is odd (or not properly associated) ?
(A) Froebel — Playway
(B) Maria Montessori — Divergent thinking
(C) Keller — Co-operative learning
(D) Gandhiji — Soiled hands
78. While teaching the concept of a ‘circle’, which one of the following would be the best way to do it ?
(A) Present a picture of a circle
(B) Present pictures of circles of various sizes
(C) Present pictures of circles and ellipses
(D) Present pictures of circles and polygons
79. Teaching would be more effective if the teacher—
(A) Makes his intent purposeful
(B) Is master of the subject
(C) Uses various instructional aids
(D) Declares his objectives in the beginning
80. In a democratic country like India, schools should concentrate on—
(A) Development of traits to face hurdles of daily life
(B) Inculcation of values cherised by the community
(C) Preparation for academic excellence
(D) Development of traits of good citizenship
Answers :
56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (A)
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (D)
56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (A)
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (D)
31. Ganpati festival was started by—
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
32. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade
33. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium
34. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee
35. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
36. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission
37. Who said—“Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
38. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh
39. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans
40. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light
41. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
42. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk
43. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma
44. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba
45. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa
46. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
47. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu
48. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara
49. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act
50. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components
51. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen
52. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report
53. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education
54. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)
55. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Directions—(Q. 25–28) In each of the following questions two statements are followed by two conclusions. Assuming that the two given statements are true (however absurd they may be) decide which of the two conclusions follows strictly from the given statements. Select the most appropriate alternative.
25. All men are chairs.
All animals are chairs
Conclusions :
I. All men are animals.
II. No animal is a man.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
26. Buckets are means of transport.
Stairs are means of transport.
Conclusions :
I. Buckets are stairs.
II. Some stairs are buckets.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
27. No bird has wings.
All birds are rational.
Conclusions :
I. Some rationals have wings.
II. Wingless are birds.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
28. All philosophers are rational people.
Some rational people are happy.
Conclusions :
I. Some happy people are philosophers.
II. Some happy people are rational.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
29. Which is the fourth letter to the left of the letter that is mid-way between ‘O’ and ‘P’ in ‘CARDIOGRAPH’ ?
(A) D
(B) I
(C) O
(D) R
30. Which is the odd term in the following list ?
(A) January
(B) May
(C) April
(D) August
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
32. The name ‘Indian National Congress’ was given by—
(A) S. N. Banerjee
(B) Feroz Shah Mehta
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) M. G. Ranade
33. German Silver is the alloy combination of—
(A) Copper, Zinc and Nickel
(B) Copper, Aluminium and Nickel
(C) Chromium, Nickel and Mercury
(D) Copper, Lead and Chromium
34. Who is considered the ‘Guardian of public purse’ ?
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Public Accounts Committee
35. Where is Nandapa Wild-life Sanctuary ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
36. Which of the following committees on education is considered as the Magna Carta of
English Education in India ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Raleigh Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Hunter Commission
37. Who said—“Patriotisim is religion and religion is love for India” ?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raj Narain Bose
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
38. The famous ‘Kirtistambha’ at Chittor was built by—
(A) Rana Pratap
(B) Rana Kumbha
(C) Rana Hammir
(D) Rana Sangram Singh
39. Gold coins in India were first introduced by—
(A) Sakas
(B) Parthians
(C) Indo-Greeks
(D) Kushans
40. Light year is the unit of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Light
(D) Intensity of light
41. Which of the following is known as ‘morning star’ ?
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
42. All the following foods lack vitamin C, except—
(A) Rice
(B) Meat
(C) Cheese
(D) Milk
43. The fourth state of matter is—
(A) Super fluids
(B) Small particles suspended in the gas
(C) Liquid crystals
(D) Plasma
44. The leading producer of coffee in the world is—
(A) Turkey
(B) Brazil
(C) Venezuela
(D) Cuba
45. The Bhutia group of languages does not include—
(A) Ladakhi
(B) Tibetan
(C) Lepcha
(D) Sherpa
46. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh
47. Which of the following matchings is wrong ?
(A) Vijayawada — Narmada
(B) Lucknow — Gomti
(C) Badrinath — Alaknanda
(D) Ayodhya — Saryu
48. The first nuclear reactor of India was named as—
(A) Urvashi
(B) Rohini
(C) Kamini
(D) Apsara
49. Fundamental right to education has been brought through—
(A) 83rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(B) 86th Constitution (Amendment) Act
(C) 93rd Constitution (Amendment) Act
(D) 96th Constitution (Amendment) Act
50. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) caters to—
(A) Early Child care and Education alone
(B) Early child care and Education with five other components
(C) Early Child care and Education with four other components
(D) Early Child care and three other components
51. Education Commission in independent India which focused on Secondary Education was chaired by—
(A) Dr. D. S. Kothari
(B) A. Lakshmiswami Mudaliar
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Triguna Sen
52. Education Commission in pre-independence India which comprehensively covered all
aspects of education is known as—
(A) Saddler Commission
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Sargent Plan
(D) Abbot-Wood Report
53. Tarachand Committee provided recommendations on—
(A) Student’s Unrest
(B) Religious and Moral Education
(C) Vocationalisation of Education
(D) Secondary Education
54. State expenditure of 6 percent of G. D. P. was recommended by—
(A) Kothari Commission (1966)
(B) National Education Policy (1968)
(C) National Policy on Education (1986)
(D) Review Committee on NPE (1986)
55. The latest National Curriculum Framework by NCERT came into existence in—
(A) 2000
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answers :
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–14) In each of the following questions an incomplete series of numbers, with one blank is given. Identify the missing member from the given alternatives.
11. 1, 27, 125, …?…, 729
(A) 242
(B) 314
(C) 307
(D) 343
12. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, …?…
(A) 25000
(B) 560
(C) 550
(D) 540
13. 3, 14, 47, …?…, 443, 1334
(A) 61
(B) 89
(C) 146
(D) 445
14. 2, 9, 30, 93, 282, …?…
(A) 849
(B) 846
(C) 649
(D) 746
Directions—(Q. 15–18) In each of the following questions there are five groups of letters. First is the primary one, followed by four; out of which one is different from the rest. Identify this odd member.
15. IIJL
(A) QQSV
(B) EEFH
(C) AABD
(D) MMNP
16. ABAC
(A) BCBD
(B) PRPQ
(C) CDCE
(D) STSU
17. BXTP
(A) OKGC
(B) DZVR
(C) XTOK
(D) EAWS
18. DINS
(A) HMSX
(B) FKPU
(C) JOTY
(D) NSXC
19. Which pair is different in some way from others in the following pairs ?
(A) Bottle and ink
(B) Can and oil
(C) Bag and clothes
(D) Boat and ship
Directions—(Q. 20–24) In each of the following questions there are five figures. First is a reference figure. Among the answer figures one figure does not belong to the class to which the first figure belongs. Identify this odd figure.
11. 1, 27, 125, …?…, 729
(A) 242
(B) 314
(C) 307
(D) 343
12. 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, …?…
(A) 25000
(B) 560
(C) 550
(D) 540
13. 3, 14, 47, …?…, 443, 1334
(A) 61
(B) 89
(C) 146
(D) 445
14. 2, 9, 30, 93, 282, …?…
(A) 849
(B) 846
(C) 649
(D) 746
Directions—(Q. 15–18) In each of the following questions there are five groups of letters. First is the primary one, followed by four; out of which one is different from the rest. Identify this odd member.
15. IIJL
(A) QQSV
(B) EEFH
(C) AABD
(D) MMNP
16. ABAC
(A) BCBD
(B) PRPQ
(C) CDCE
(D) STSU
17. BXTP
(A) OKGC
(B) DZVR
(C) XTOK
(D) EAWS
18. DINS
(A) HMSX
(B) FKPU
(C) JOTY
(D) NSXC
19. Which pair is different in some way from others in the following pairs ?
(A) Bottle and ink
(B) Can and oil
(C) Bag and clothes
(D) Boat and ship
Directions—(Q. 20–24) In each of the following questions there are five figures. First is a reference figure. Among the answer figures one figure does not belong to the class to which the first figure belongs. Identify this odd figure.
Directions—(Q. 25–28) In each of the following questions two statements are followed by two conclusions. Assuming that the two given statements are true (however absurd they may be) decide which of the two conclusions follows strictly from the given statements. Select the most appropriate alternative.
25. All men are chairs.
All animals are chairs
Conclusions :
I. All men are animals.
II. No animal is a man.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
26. Buckets are means of transport.
Stairs are means of transport.
Conclusions :
I. Buckets are stairs.
II. Some stairs are buckets.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
27. No bird has wings.
All birds are rational.
Conclusions :
I. Some rationals have wings.
II. Wingless are birds.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
28. All philosophers are rational people.
Some rational people are happy.
Conclusions :
I. Some happy people are philosophers.
II. Some happy people are rational.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Both I and II follow
(D) Neither I nor II follows
29. Which is the fourth letter to the left of the letter that is mid-way between ‘O’ and ‘P’ in ‘CARDIOGRAPH’ ?
(A) D
(B) I
(C) O
(D) R
30. Which is the odd term in the following list ?
(A) January
(B) May
(C) April
(D) August
Answers with Explanation :
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A)
19. (D) In all the rest the first is used to fill the second.
20. (A) All the rest are consonants alike ‘J’ while ‘A’ is vowel.
21. (B) All the rest are perfect squares.
22. (B) In all the rest the lower designs are the mirror image of the upper designs.
23. (D) In all the rest, the st. lines are both sides of the middle design.
24. (B) In all the rest both the leaves are not joined at one place.
25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (C) All the rest have thirty days each.
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A)
19. (D) In all the rest the first is used to fill the second.
20. (A) All the rest are consonants alike ‘J’ while ‘A’ is vowel.
21. (B) All the rest are perfect squares.
22. (B) In all the rest the lower designs are the mirror image of the upper designs.
23. (D) In all the rest, the st. lines are both sides of the middle design.
24. (B) In all the rest both the leaves are not joined at one place.
25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (C) All the rest have thirty days each.
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