RRB EXAM MODEL PAPERS

RRB MODEL QUESTIONS

1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

16. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B




25. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stockis known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B

RRB GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.	Consider the following statements : 1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times. 2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled. Which of the statements given abova is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
2.	Consider the following statements :  1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth.  2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
3.	Consider the following statements :  1. The National' School of Drama was set up by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959.  2. The highest honour conferred by the Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing him its Fellow.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (c)
4.	Consider the following statements :  1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri.  2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (b)
5.	Consider the following statements : 1. The Baglihar. Power Project had been constructed within the parameters of the Indus Water Treaty. 2. The project was completely built by the Union Government with loans from Japan and the World Bank. Which of the statements given above is/arc; correct,? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
6.	Consider the following statements :  1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.  2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
7.	Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning :  1. The Second Five-Year Plan emphasised on the establishment of heavy industries.  2. The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialisation.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (c)
8.	Consider the following statements:  1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops.  2. The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
9.	Which of the following countries has not made any significant investment in India? (a) Japan (b) USA (c) Nepal (d) Britain	Ans: (c)
10.	Which of the following deals between India and one major country was put on a hold for some time as India is finding difficult to implement it? (a) 123 Pact with USA (b) Fifth generation fighter plane deal with Russia (c) Heavy Water deal with Iran (d) Border talks with China	Ans: (a)
11.	Which of the following indexes is developed to measure life expectancy, level of literacy, education and standard of living of people in a country? (a) Inflation (b) Sensex (c) Human Development Index (d) SLR	Ans: (c)
12.	Which of the following is not a Public Sector Unit/Undertaking/Agency? (a) ECGC (b) SEBI (c) SIDBI (d) Axis Bank	Ans: (b)
13.	Which of the following political theories advocates the withering in a new society in which there will be no state and no classes? (a) Liberalism (b) Democratic Socialism (c) Marxism (d) Fabian Socialisn	Ans:(c)
14.	Which of the following writs is issued to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess? (a) Prohibition (b) Mandamus (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Certiorari	Ans: (a)
15.	Which one of the following Articles Provide "Right to Equality"? (a) Article-14 (b) Article-19 (c) Article-20 (d) Article-18	Ans:(a)
16.	Which one of the following brings out the publication called "Energy Statistics" from time to time? (a) Central Power Research Institute (b) Planning Commission (c) Power Finance Corporation Ltd. (d) Central Statistical Organization	Ans: (d)
17.	Which one of the following Constitutes limitation upon the concept of 'judicial Review' in India? (a) Rule of Law (b) Due Process (c) Procedure established by law (d) Equal Protection of law	Ans:(c)
18.	Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of (a) 90th (b) 91st (c) 92nd (d) 93rd	Ans: (b)
19.	Which one of the following is correct about the expenses of a State Public Service Commission? (a) Budget of the state (b) Public Account of the state (c) Consolidated Fund of India (d) Consolidated Fund of State	Ans:(d)
20.	Which one of the following is the proper authority to effect deprivation of some of the fundamental rights of the armed forces? (a) The Parliament of India (b) The President of India (c) The Defence Ministe (d) The Council of Ministers	Ans:(a)
21.	Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety? (a) Ministry of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (c) Ministry of Environment and Forests (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers	Ans: (c)
22.	Which sector contributes the maximum share in National income of India? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) All the above have equal share	Ans:(c)
23.	Who among the following is known as the guardian of the Public Purse in India? (a) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (b) The President (c) The Minister of Finance (d) The Parliament	Ans: (a)
24.	Who among the following is the chairman of National Commission on Farmers? (a) Sharad Pawar (b) M S Swaminathan (c) Man Mohan Singh (d) P G Bhatol	Ans:(b)
25.	Who among the following is the Chairman of the Steering Committee to oversee the functions of the National Authority, Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)? (a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) The National Security Adviser (d) The Cabinet Secretary	Ans:(d)
26.	Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Parliament (d) Chief Justice of India	Ans: (a)
27.	Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War? (a) Gen. V. P. Malik (b) Gen. S. K. Sinha (c) K. Subramanyam (d) K. C. Panth	Ans:(c)
28.	Who is tha following participate in the election of the president of india but not in his impeachment? (a) The nominated members of the Parliament and State Legislatures (b) The members of Rajya Sabha (c) The elected members members of the State Legislative Assemblies (d) The members of the State Legislative Councils	Ans:(c)
29.	Who is the signatory on the Indian currency notes in denomination of two rupees and above? (a) Secretary, Reserve Bank of India (b) Finance Secretary, Minister of Finance (c) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (d) Finance Minister, Ministry of Finance	Ans: (c)
30	Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? (a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) The Vice-President (c) The President (d) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs	Ans:(a)
31.	Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution (a) High Court (b) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (c) District Court (d) Supreme Court of India	Ans:(d)
32.	Who summons the joint sitting of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha? (a) President (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (d) Prime Minister	Ans: (a)
33.	With reference to I ho United Nations, consider the following statements : 1. The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of UN consists of 24 member States. 2. It is elected by a 2/3 majority of The General Assembly for a 3-year term. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (b)
34.	With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements: 1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a degree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court. 2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
35.	With reference to the scheme launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 2. Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans:(b)
36.	With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only. 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
37.	With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary. 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (b)
38.	With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18. 2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
39.	With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt? (a) Review of Centres-States relations (b)  Review of Delimitation Act (c)  Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues (d)  Price-reforms in the oil sector	Ans: (d)
40.	India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it? (a) Quit India Movement (b) Delhi Chalo Movement (c) Civil Disobedience Movement (d) Non – Cooperation Movement	Ans: (c)
41.	Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007? (a) 8% (b) 9% (c) 9.5% (d) 10%	Ans: (b)
42.	Liberhan Commission has been appointed to deal with which one of the following? (a) Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984 (b)Demolition of Babri Masjid (c)Godhra Incident (d) Mumbai Communal Riots	Ans: (b)
43.	Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007? (a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi (b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar (c) P.Chidambaram (d) Sushama Swaraj	Ans: (a)
44.	What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment bill deal with? (a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri,Maithili and Santhali , languages in the Eighth  Schedule (b) Inclusion of service tax levied  by Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the States in the Seventh Schedule (c)Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years (d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh	Ans: (d)
46.	Consider the following statements: 1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the house of Parliament. 2.The main purpose of these committees is to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the Government. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b)2 only (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (c)
47.	Which of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial paper ? (1) It is nothing but the popular name of the judicial stamp papers used to register financial transactions. (2) It is one of the instrument through which corporate raise debt from the market. (3) It is the name of the “Certificate of Deposits” provided by the banks to its retail customers. (a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) Only (3) (d) Both (1) & (2)	Ans: (b)
48.	Consider the following statements: 1.Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head. 2.The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. 3.Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d) 2 only	Ans: (c)
49.	The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open more IITs during the year 2008-09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States? (a) Bihar,Rajasthan,Andhra Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh,Orissa,Karnataka (c) Karnataka,Tamilnadu,Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh,Madhya Pradesh,Bihar	Ans: (a)
50.	Which one of the following industries is not recommended by Investment commission as national thrust Area? (a)Tourism (b) Information Technology (c) Agro-processing (d) Textiles	Ans: (b)

RRB GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.	Who is the author of the books ‘Sense and Sensibility’ and ‘Pride and Prejudice’? (a) Anna Sewell (b) Voltaire (c) Fyodor Dostoevsky (d) Jane Austen	Answer: (d)
2.	Author of the book ‘Around the World in Eighty Days’ (a) J. K. Rowling (b) Jack London (c) Jules Verne (d) George Orwell	Answer: (c)
3.	Amrita Pritam's work "A Revenue Stamp" is (a) A book of stories (b) A novel (c) A biography (d) An autobiography	Answer: (d)
4.	Author of the book ‘Crime and Punishment’. (a) Fyodor Dostoevsky (b) Vatsyayana (c) Niccolo Machiavelli (d) Nathaniel Hawthorne	Answer: (a)
5.	Author of the book Gulliver's Travels. (a) P G. Wodehouse (b) Rod Barker (c) Saul Bellow (d) Jonathan Swift	Answer: (d)
6.	Author of the book Sherlock Holmes. (a) Seymour Hersh (b) Arthur Koestler (c) Karl Marx (d) Arthur Conan Doyle	Answer: (d)
7.	Author of the books 5 Weeks in a Balloon & 80,000 Leagues Under the Sea. (a) Jules Verne (b) Alexander Dumas (c)Jules Verne (d) Charles Dickens	Answer: (a)
8.	Author of the books The Three Musketeers and The Legend of Monte Cristo. (a) Alexandre Dumas (b) Albert Camus (c) Arthur Stanley Eddington (d) Aldous Huxley	Answer: (a)
9.	'Beyond time' is the book written by (a) Namita Gokhale (b) Ruskin Bond (c) William Balrymple (d) None of these	Answer: (d)
10.	Mulk Raj Anand is the author of (a) The Post Office (b) Gora (c) India Wins Freedom (d) Coolie	Answer: (d)
11.	The "Killer Instinct" is written by (a) Sulakshan Mohan (b) M.K.Santanam (c) O.P.Sabharwal (d) Subash Jain	Answer: (c)
12.	The book ‘Vish Vriksha’ was written by: (a) Bankimchandra Chatterjee (b) Annie Basant (c) Tulsidas (d) Kalidas	Answer: (a)
13.	The only religious book ever printed in a shorthand scripts is: (a) The Ramayana (b) The Mahabharata (c) The bible (d) Guru Granth Sahib	Answer: (c)
14.	Which of the following in the book/play written by Maithili Sharan Gupt? (a) Saket (b) Satyartha Prakash (c) Shakuntala (d) Savitri	Answer: (a)
15.	Who authored the 'Gitanjali', an anthology of poems? (a) Sumitranandan Pant (b) Makhanlal Chaturvedi (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) Maithili Sharan Gupt	Answer: (c)
16.	Who is the author of the book Superstar India? (a) Arun Shourie (b) Dominique Lapierre (c) Shobha De (d) Salman Rushdie	Answer: ( c )
17.	‘Travelling Through Conflict’ is a book written by _____. (a) Hamid Ansari (b) Cherie Blair (c) Balraj Krishna (d) Salman Rushdie	Answer: (a)
18.	Author of the book ‘Candide’. (a) Anna Sewell (b) Voltaire (c) Fyodor Dostoevsky (d) Voltaire	Answer: (d)
19.	Author of the book Frankenstein. (a) Mary Shelley (b) W.M. Thackeray (c) Charlotte Bronte (d) Jules Verne	Answer: (a)
20.	Author of the book Robinson Crusoe. (a) Daniel Defoe (b) Johanna Spyri (c) Lewis Carroll (d) Rudyard Kipling	Answer: (a)
21.	Author of the book Wuthering Heights. (a) Charlotte Bronte (b) Omar Khayyam (c) Joyce Kilmer (d) Gaston Leroux	Answer: (a)
22.	Author of the books The Prince and the Pauper, The Great Expectation, The Adventure of Tom Sawyer & Huckleberry Finn. (a) James A. Michener (b) Stephen King (c) George Byron (d) Mark Twain	Answer: (d)
23.	Authors of the book Tales From Shakespeare. (a) Charles And Mary Lamb (b) Gaurav C. Samant (c) Benazir Bhutto (d) Charles Dickens	Answer: (a)
24.	Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I                                          List II (Book)                                      (Author)) A. In custody                            1. Amartya Sen B. Sea of Poppies                      2. Amitav Ghosh C. The Argumentative Indian      3. Anita Desai D. Unaccustomed Earth             4. Jhumpa Lahiri Code:       A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4	Answer: (c)
25.	She wrote the famous poem "Trees". (a) Joyce Kilmer (b) Alexander Dumas (c) Jonathan Swift (d) Robert Louis Stevenson	Answer: (a)
26.	The book ‘Satyartha Prakash’ was written by: (a) Swami Dayanand (b) Swami Vivekanand (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Kalidas	Answer: (a)
27.	The oldest printed work in the world, which dates back to AD 868 is: (a) The Bible (b) The Hirake Sutra (c) The Ramayana (d) The Mahabharata	Answer: (b)
28.	Which of the following book was written by Tulsidas: (a) Vinay Patrika (b) Ramcharitmanas (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Yashodhara	Answer: (c)
29.	Who amonst the following is the author of the book 'Freedom from Fear'? (a) Nelson Mandela (b) Aung San Suukyi (c) Taslima Nasreen (d) Benazir Bhutto	Answer: (b)
30.	Who is the author of the book ‘Harry Potter’ and the ‘Half-Blood Prince’? (a)Mark Twain (a) J. K. Rowling (c) William Shakespeare (d) Jules Verne	Answer: (a

RRB GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.	Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayat? (a) Property Tax (b) House Tax (c) Land Tax (d) Vehicle Tax	Answer: (c)
2.	A person wants to contest election for the membership of Gram Panchayat, what should be his age? (a) 18 years or above (b) 19 years or above (c) 21 years of above (d) Minimum 25 years	Answer: (c)
3.	Among other things, which one of the following was the purpose for which the Deepak Parekh Committee was constituted? (a) To study the current socio-economic conditions of certain minority communities (b) To suggest measures for financing the development of infrastructure (c) To frame a policy on the production of genetically modified organisms (d) To suggest measures to reduce the fiscal deficit in the Union Budget	Answer: (b)
4.	Among the following who was the Speaker in two Lok Sabhas? (a) Rabi Ray (b) Shivraj Patil (c) P. A. Sangma (d) G. M. C. Balyogi	Answer: (d)
5.	As per Economic Survey 2006-07 India’s share in World Export has been ______. (a) 0.5 % (b) 0.75 % (c) 1 % (d) 1.25 %	Answer: (d)
6.	Attorney General of India is Appointed by (a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Law Minister (d) President	Answer: (b)
7.	By which of the following Acts were the Commercial Rights of East India Company Abolished? (a) Regulating Act of 1773 (b) Charter Act of 1813 (c) Charter Act of 1833 (d) Charter Act of 1853	Answer: (c)
8.	Consider the following statements:  1. India does not have any deposits of Thorium.  2. Kerala's monazito sands contain Uranium.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2	Answer: (b)
9.	Consider the following:  1. Fringe Benefit Tax  2. Interest Tax  3. Securities Transaction Tax  Which of the above is/are Direct Tax/Taxes? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3	Answer: (c)
10.	During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected? (a) Third (b) Fourth (c) Fifth (d) Sixth	Answer: (c)
11.	First share market in India was established in— (a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai	Answer: (b)
12.	Future of Indian Culture rests mostly on - (a) Relevance to the present society. (b) Equalitarianism in society (c) Elimination of conservative trends in Indian Society. (d) Eliminating European influences	Answer: (c)
13.	If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within: (a) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) 6 months (d) 1 year	Answer: (c)
14.	In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following: (a) Calcutta (b) Madras (c) Bombay (d) Delhi	Answer: (b)
15.	In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council? (a) Prime Minister (b) Minister of Water Resources (c) Minister of Environment and Forests (d) Minister of Science and Technology	Answer: (a)
16.	In the context of global economy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) JP Morgan : Financial Services Chase (b) Roche Holding : Financial Services AG (c) WL Ross & : Private Equity Co. Firm (d) Warburg Pincus : Private Equity Firm	Answer: (b)
17.	In the context of Indian defence, consider the following statements :  1. The Shourya missile flies with a speed of more than 8 Mach.  2. The range of Shourya missile is more than 1600 km.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Answer: (d)
18.	In the group of nations, India is presently having how much of the SDR (accordinf to the latest report at the Singapore meet) (a) 3297 (b) 3900 (c) 3456 (d) 3100	Answer: (a)
19.	In the latter half of the year 2008, which one of the following countries pulled out of Commonwealth of Independent States? (a) Azerbaijan (b) Belarus (c) Georgia (d) Kazakhstan	Answer: (c)
20.	In which Session of the Congress was the resolution passed stating that "there should be equality before law irrespective of caste, creed or sex"? (a) Calcutta Session, 1906 (b) Lucknow Session, 1916 (c) Lahore Session, 1929 (d) Karachi Session, 1931	Answer: (d)
21.	In which year Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act came into force? (a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2007 (d) 2008	Answer: (b)
22.	'National Human Right Commission' is a (a) Statutory body (b) Constitutional body (c) Quasi-Judicial body (d) Extra-constitutional and Extra Statutory body	Answer: (a)
23.	Persons below the poverty line in India are classified as such based on whether (a) They are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket (b) They get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year (c) They belong to agricultural labourer household and the scheduled caste /tribe social group (d) Their daily wages fall below the prescribed minimum wages	Answer: (a)
24.	Provincial Autonomy was a significant feature of (a) The Government of India Act, 1935 (b) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 (c) The Government of India Act, 1919 (d) The Government of India Act, 1909	Answer: (a)
25.	Right to Information Act was passed in the year (a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2004 (d) 2005	Answer: (b)
26.	Select the one which is not the responsibility of Gram Sabha under the Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 (a) To recommend projects to the Gram Panchayat and prepare list of possible works (b) To receive applications for work and issue a dated receipt (c) To monitor the execution of works within the Gram Panchayat (d) To conduct regular social audits of all the projects taken up with in the Gram Panchayat	Answer: (b)
27.	Setting up of which one of the following is not stated in the Constitution of India? (a) Planning Commission (b) Finance Commission (c) Election Commission (d) Union Public Service Commission	Answer: (a)
28.	Shankarlal Guru Committee was associated with— (a) Agricultural Marketing (b) Agriculture Production (c) Public Distribution System (d) None of the above	Answer: (a)
29.	Survey of India is under the Ministry of (a) Defence (b) Environment and Forests (c) Home Affairs (d) Science & Technology	Answer: (d)
30.	The - Finance Commission headed by Vijay Kelkar, on December 30, 2009, submitted its five-year roadmap for fiscal consolidation to the Union Government. (a) 11th (b) 12th (c) 13th (d) 14th	Answer: (c)
31.	The Abbreviation NAEP stands for (a) National Atomic Energy Planning (b) National Adult education Programme (c) National Authority on Engineering Projects (d) Nuclear and Atomic Energy Project	Answer: (b)
32.	The Abbreviations PSLV stands for (a) Polar Survey Landing Vehicle (b) Polarised Source Laser Viewing (c) Precise Source Locating Vision (d) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle	Answer: (d)
33.	The Concept of 'Popular Sovereignty' refers to the power of the (a) People as a whole (b) electorates Only (c) State (d) Legal Power Of the Judiciary	Answer: (a)
34.	The Finance Commission is appointed for every______ year. (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6	Answer: (c)
35.	The Foreign Exchange Reserve of India are kept in the custody of…… (a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund (c) Prime Minister Rahat Kosh (d) Reserve Bank of India	Answer: (d)
36.	The General Budget is presented in the parliament normally in the month of (a) January (b) February (c) March (d) Last month of the year	Answer: (b)
37.	The government of ______, on December 8, 2009, unveiled $81 billion of new stimulus spending to keep the world's second-biggest economy from lurching back into recession. (a) USA (b) Great Britain (c) United Arab Emirates (d) Japan	Answer: (d)
38.	The Government of India is planning to open Rail Link between Sealdah to Devpura. Devpura is locatd in ______ (a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh (c) Bhutan (d) Pakistan	Answer: (b)
39.	The 'Inter-State Council' is provided by the (a) President of India (b) Parliament (c) Constitution of India (d) Planning Commission	Answer: (c)
40.	The joint session of the two houses is presided by (a) the speaker (b) the president (c) chairman of Rajyasabha (d) none of these	Answer: (a)
41.	The number of Zonal Councils in India is— (a) Five (b) Four (c) Seven (d) Eight	Answer: (a)
42.	The Supreme Court has interpreted constitutional right to education as (a) Fundamental right under directive principles (b) Right to life (c) Right to equality (d) Right to Employment	Answer: (a)
43.	The Treaty of Bassein(1802) was signed between: (a) Madhav Rao and the British (b) Balaji Rao II and the British (c) Mahadji Scindia and the British (d) Holkar and the British	Answer: (b)
44.	The wheel of Saranath pillar denotes - (a) Revolution (b) Justice (c) Dharmachakra Pravartan (d) Dhamma	Answer: (c)
45	The World Bank, in December 2009, extended its support to the Rajasthan Government for four projects pertaining to -. (a) Livelihood (b) Water resources and rural roads (c) Agricultural competitiveness (d) All of the above	Answer: (d)
46.	Under the administration of which- one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy? (a) Prime Minister's Office (b) Cabinet Secretariat (c) Ministry of Power (d) Ministry of Science and Technology	Answer: (a)
47.	Under which five year plan did agriculture show a negative growth? (a)  1st plan (b) 2nd plan (c) 3rd plan (d) 4th plan	Answer: (c)
48.	Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced Changes in the 'Advisory Jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court? (a) Fifth Amendment Act (b) Seventh Amendment Act (c) Forty-fourth Amendment Act (d) Forty- Second Amendment Act	Answer: (b)
49.	Which of the following is a type of tax levied by the Govt. on goods and services? (a) SAT (b) NET (c) PAN (d) VAT	Answer: (d)
50	‘Lakshya’ which is part of Indian Defence System is : (a) Surface to air missile (b) Missile firing submarine (c) Multi-barrel rocket system (d) Pilotless target aircraft

RRB PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER

1. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

2. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru

3. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon

4. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911

5. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland

6. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe

7. The ‘Arya Samaj’ was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

8. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916

9. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862

10. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant

11. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas

12. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission

13. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

14. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks

15. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune

16. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu

17. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.

18. The ‘Chipko Movement’ is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation

19. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga

20. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps

21. The largest producer of world’s mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India

22. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude

23. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India

24. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman

25. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km

26. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

27. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid

28. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs

29. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia

30. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower

31. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen

32. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex

33. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon

34. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere

35. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

36. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes

37. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(A) Jenner
(B) Watson
(C) Landsteiner
(D) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

38. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic

39. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger

40. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet

41. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter

42. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

43. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli’s theorem

44. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption

45. The chemical name of ‘Common salt’ is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride

46. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine

47. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt

48. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton

49. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium

50. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80

ANSWERS:

1. (D) 2. (A)
3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (A)
18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (D) 22. (A)
23. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
24. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B)28. (C) 29. (D)
30. (B) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (A)
35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (C)38. (C) 39. (B)
40. (C) 41. (C) 42. (B)43. (D)44. (C)
45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C)49. (B)
50. (A)

RRB PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid

2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0

3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc

4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%

5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above

6. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji

7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above

8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme

9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km

10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh

11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry

12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms ofarea ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh

14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin

16. Which group of the following countries participated in the ‘Malabar 07,’ a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea

17. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the ‘National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme’ in rural areas
(C) ‘Right to Information’ movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi

19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu

20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh

22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India’s first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM

24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC

25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)

26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas

28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes

29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million

30. ‘World Bank’ is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development

31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above

32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)

33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty

34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines

35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation

37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits

38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions

39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980

40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above

41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types

42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence

43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government

44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election

45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria

46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States

47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V

49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6

50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D)