RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam Paper 2009
Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these
2. Who is second to the D’s left?(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient
3. Who is third to the G’s left?(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D
4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
6.(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous
Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail
13.ASSURANCE(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail
14. ACCESS(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r
18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted is?(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500
20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21
24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m
28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°
30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit
31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105
36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these
40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these
1:D 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:B 6:B 7:C 8:A 9:B 10:C 11:A 12:B 13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:A 18:B 19:B 20:C 21:D 22::B 23:C 24:C 25:D 26:A 27:D 28:D 29:D 30:D 31:A 32:B 33:C 34:A 35:D 36:B 37:A 38:A 39:D 40:D 228 persons
RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these
2. Who is second to the D’s left?(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient
3. Who is third to the G’s left?(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D
4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?6.(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous
Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail
13.ASSURANCE(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail
14. ACCESS(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
MATHS & PHYSICS
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?(A) 0.102 m(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r
18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted is?(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500
20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21
24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m
28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°
30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit
31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105
36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these
40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these
ANSWERS
RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009
1. Find the odd-one out?
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer
2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan
3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning
4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta
5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur
6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu
7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid
11. Hemoglobin containing iron is—
(A)Antibody
(B) Nucleic Acid
(C)Protein
(D) Hormone
12. The only Indian Governor General was?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
13. From when ‘Rashtriya GraminRozgar Yojna’ is being run
throughout the country?
(A) 1—4—2007
(B) 2—10—2007
(C) 1—4—2008
(D) 14—11—2007
14.. ‘Bharat Nirman Karyakram’ was launched keeping in view the following—
(A) During 2008-09 10 million extra jobs
(B) During 2005-09 10 million extra irrigation
(C) During 11th plan 1 lakh km road in villages
(D) During 11th plan IT park in all districts
15. Who among the following won a Gold Medal in Olympic 2008?
(A) Milkha Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Sania Mirza
16.. Mansarovar lake is located in?
(A)Nepal
(B) India
(C)Tibet
(D) Bhutan
17. Next Commonwealth games will be played in?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Karanchi
(C)Seol
(D) Melbourne
18. Which of the following is a National Capital ?
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Washington DC
(D) California
19. In India Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year—
(A)1959AD
(B) 1960AD
(C)1956AD
(D) 1952 AD
20. which of the following is not an immediate neighbour of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Iran
21. How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 21
22.Which of the following plan resulted in India’s independence?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) MountbattenPlan
(D) None of these
23. ELISA is—
(A) Fat Precipitation Test
(B) Immunological Test
(C) Osteomalacia Test
(D) None of these
24. The main source of Direct Foreign Investment in India is—
(A)USA
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Mauritius
25. Histology is a study of?
(A)Blood
(B) Tissues
(C)Cells
(D) Protein
26. Plague is a disease caused by?
(A) Cattle flea
(B) Dog flea
(C) Rat flea
(D) None of these
27. The famous Gayatri Mantra’ is found in which of the following Vedas?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
28. Which is the rate of Heart beats of a child during birth?
(A) 120 times
(B) 140 times
(C) 90 times
(D) 130 times
29. Which of the following is the hottest planet?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Earth
(D) Venus
30. What is the main basis of the dividing the atmospheric layers?
(A) Air pressure
(B) Composition
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
31, The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called ?
(A) Bandwidth
(B) Interlacing
(C) Response time
(0) Scanning
32. From 2009 the two new members of NATO are?
(A) Austria and Greece
(B) Bulgaria and Turkey
(C) Crotia and Albania
(D) Romania and Poland
33. In Beijing Olympics, the winner of gold medal in football (for men)was—
(A) Argentina
(B) Belgium
(C)Brazil
(D) Nigeria
34. In the General Election, 2009 the Lok Sabha seats won by the Congress are?
(A) 204 seats
(8) 206 seats
(C) 203 seats
(D) None of these
35. Which one of the following Slates of India has been recently awarded UN OSCAR by the United Nations Secretary General for the best Human Development report?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Gujarat
(C)Kerala
(D) Sikkim
36. Who among the following was chosen ‘Business Leader of the Year’ in ‘The Economic Times Award, 2007’?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Mukesh Dhirubhai Ambani
(0) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani
37. Which of the following cricketers has experience of hitting 8 sixes in an over in an international cricket match?
(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Yuvaraj Singh
(D) Gautam Gambhir
38. Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate according to 2001 census?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamilnadu
(D) Meghalaya
39. The capital of the Pallavas was?
(A)Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C)Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
40. The back surface of mirrors are coated with a thin layer of?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Red oxide
(D) Silver nitrate
41. ‘Gidda’ is a folk dance from which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
42. India’s first mobile court was inaugurated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
43. The Sun Feast Open, 2007 was won by?
(A) Vania King
(B)Mariya Koryttseva
(C) Sania Mirza
(D)Maria Kirilenko
44. In which state is the Kanger Ghati National Park situated ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
45. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(D) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
46. Venus Williams won Wimbledon,2008 women’s singles title by defeating?
(A) Ana Ivanovic
(B)Elena Dementieva
(C) Justice Henin
(D)Serena Williams
47. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, as approved by the Union Cabinet, will be set up at?
(A) Amethi
(B) Jais
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rae Bareli
48. In Uttar Pradesh, the artificial rubber factory is situated at—
(A)Bareilly
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Modinagar
(D) Gorakhpur
49. Nathu La was reopened in 2006 for trans border trade between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Nepal
50. The term ‘Plastic Money’ applies to—
(A) Bank draft made of plastic coated paper
(B) Currency notes printed on plastic coated paper
(C) Currency notes impregnated with plastic thread
(D) Credit Cards mainly issued by the banks
1:D
2:C
3:C
4:A
5:B
6:A
7:B
8:B
9:C
10:C
11:C
12:B
13:C
14:C
15:B
16:C
17:A
18:C
19:D
20:D
21:C
22:C
23:B
24:D
25:B
26:C
27:A
28:D
29:D
30:C
31:A
32:C
33:A
34:D
35:A
36:C
37:C
38:B
39:B
40:D
41:A
42:D
43:D
44:D
45:C
46:D
47:D
48::C
49::B
50:D
RRB COMMERCIAL APPRENTICE EXAM 2009
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer
2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan
3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning
4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta
5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur
6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu
7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid
11. Hemoglobin containing iron is—
(A)Antibody
(B) Nucleic Acid
(C)Protein
(D) Hormone
12. The only Indian Governor General was?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
13. From when ‘Rashtriya GraminRozgar Yojna’ is being run
throughout the country?
(A) 1—4—2007
(B) 2—10—2007
(C) 1—4—2008
(D) 14—11—2007
14.. ‘Bharat Nirman Karyakram’ was launched keeping in view the following—
(A) During 2008-09 10 million extra jobs
(B) During 2005-09 10 million extra irrigation
(C) During 11th plan 1 lakh km road in villages
(D) During 11th plan IT park in all districts
15. Who among the following won a Gold Medal in Olympic 2008?
(A) Milkha Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Sania Mirza
16.. Mansarovar lake is located in?
(A)Nepal
(B) India
(C)Tibet
(D) Bhutan
17. Next Commonwealth games will be played in?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Karanchi
(C)Seol
(D) Melbourne
18. Which of the following is a National Capital ?
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Washington DC
(D) California
19. In India Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year—
(A)1959AD
(B) 1960AD
(C)1956AD
(D) 1952 AD
20. which of the following is not an immediate neighbour of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Iran
21. How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 21
22.Which of the following plan resulted in India’s independence?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) MountbattenPlan
(D) None of these
23. ELISA is—
(A) Fat Precipitation Test
(B) Immunological Test
(C) Osteomalacia Test
(D) None of these
24. The main source of Direct Foreign Investment in India is—
(A)USA
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Mauritius
25. Histology is a study of?
(A)Blood
(B) Tissues
(C)Cells
(D) Protein
26. Plague is a disease caused by?
(A) Cattle flea
(B) Dog flea
(C) Rat flea
(D) None of these
27. The famous Gayatri Mantra’ is found in which of the following Vedas?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
28. Which is the rate of Heart beats of a child during birth?
(A) 120 times
(B) 140 times
(C) 90 times
(D) 130 times
29. Which of the following is the hottest planet?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Earth
(D) Venus
30. What is the main basis of the dividing the atmospheric layers?
(A) Air pressure
(B) Composition
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
31, The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called ?
(A) Bandwidth
(B) Interlacing
(C) Response time
(0) Scanning
32. From 2009 the two new members of NATO are?
(A) Austria and Greece
(B) Bulgaria and Turkey
(C) Crotia and Albania
(D) Romania and Poland
33. In Beijing Olympics, the winner of gold medal in football (for men)was—
(A) Argentina
(B) Belgium
(C)Brazil
(D) Nigeria
34. In the General Election, 2009 the Lok Sabha seats won by the Congress are?
(A) 204 seats
(8) 206 seats
(C) 203 seats
(D) None of these
35. Which one of the following Slates of India has been recently awarded UN OSCAR by the United Nations Secretary General for the best Human Development report?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Gujarat
(C)Kerala
(D) Sikkim
36. Who among the following was chosen ‘Business Leader of the Year’ in ‘The Economic Times Award, 2007’?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Mukesh Dhirubhai Ambani
(0) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani
37. Which of the following cricketers has experience of hitting 8 sixes in an over in an international cricket match?
(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Yuvaraj Singh
(D) Gautam Gambhir
38. Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate according to 2001 census?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamilnadu
(D) Meghalaya
39. The capital of the Pallavas was?
(A)Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C)Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
40. The back surface of mirrors are coated with a thin layer of?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Red oxide
(D) Silver nitrate
41. ‘Gidda’ is a folk dance from which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
42. India’s first mobile court was inaugurated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
43. The Sun Feast Open, 2007 was won by?
(A) Vania King
(B)Mariya Koryttseva
(C) Sania Mirza
(D)Maria Kirilenko
44. In which state is the Kanger Ghati National Park situated ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
45. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(D) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
46. Venus Williams won Wimbledon,2008 women’s singles title by defeating?
(A) Ana Ivanovic
(B)Elena Dementieva
(C) Justice Henin
(D)Serena Williams
47. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, as approved by the Union Cabinet, will be set up at?
(A) Amethi
(B) Jais
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rae Bareli
48. In Uttar Pradesh, the artificial rubber factory is situated at—
(A)Bareilly
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Modinagar
(D) Gorakhpur
49. Nathu La was reopened in 2006 for trans border trade between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Nepal
50. The term ‘Plastic Money’ applies to—
(A) Bank draft made of plastic coated paper
(B) Currency notes printed on plastic coated paper
(C) Currency notes impregnated with plastic thread
(D) Credit Cards mainly issued by the banks
1:D
2:C
3:C
4:A
5:B
6:A
7:B
8:B
9:C
10:C
11:C
12:B
13:C
14:C
15:B
16:C
17:A
18:C
19:D
20:D
21:C
22:C
23:B
24:D
25:B
26:C
27:A
28:D
29:D
30:C
31:A
32:C
33:A
34:D
35:A
36:C
37:C
38:B
39:B
40:D
41:A
42:D
43:D
44:D
45:C
46:D
47:D
48::C
49::B
50:D
RRB COMMERCIAL APPRENTICE EXAM 2009
http://www.ziddu.com/download/10126922/RRBCOMMERCIALAPPRENTICEEXAM.pdf.html
Railway Recruitment Board Chandigarh Commercial Apprentice Exam
Railway Recruitment Board Chandigarh Commercial Apprentice Exam
Railway Recruitment Board Chandigarh Solved Paper
1. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(A) 6 : 30
(B) 6 : 00
(C) 6 : 15
(D) 4 : 20
2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 25
3. If x means −, ÷ means +, + means ÷, − means x then find the value of 13 − 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100
(A) 1/760
(B) 76
(C) 176
(D) 186
4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 16 km
(D) 10 km
5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(A) Karishma
(B) Kajal
(C) Ankita
(D) None of these
6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?
(A) 28th, 22nd
(B) 27th, 21st
(C) 28th, 20th
(D) 27th, 22nd
7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(A) 24
(B) 57
(C) 58
(D) 27
8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—
(A) 8, 9, 8
(B) 9, 8, 8
(C) 10, 1, 6
(D) 10, 8, 9
9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(A) 978626
(B) 112144
(C) 447355
(D) 869756
10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 17
(D) 9
11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—
(A) 370
(B) 352
(C) 361
(D) 371
12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.
(A) Rs. 80
(B) Rs. 120
(C) Rs. 140
(D) Rs. 160
13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?
(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 0
(D) 1
14. Find the value of 50 × 8.
(A) 40
(B) 200
(C) 8
(D) 0
15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—
(A) 24/5 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 10/3 %
16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—
(A) 9%
(B) 10%
(C) 18%
(D) 900/109 %
17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(A) 50/144 %
(B) 5%
(C) 1/12 %
(D) 5/24 %
18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(A) 28.50°C
(B) 270°C
(C) 300°C
(D) 320°C
20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—
(A) 10 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 7 days
21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?
(A) 17 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 26 cm
(D) 23 cm
22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?
(A) 2 times
(B) 1/3 times
(C) 9 times
(D) 3 times
23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—
(A) 32 km/h
(B) 50 km/h
(C) 45 km/h
(D) 64 km/h
24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 3
25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 17/3 times
(C) 45/7 minutes
(D) 5/4 minutes
26. Find the value of 0.0016—
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.04
(C) 0.8
(D) 4
27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 2
Directions (28-30): Fill up the blanks with the appropriate words.
28. Mr. Jagdish is confident _________ his success.
(A) about
(B) of
(C) for
(D) regarding
29. He persisted _________ doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.
(A) on
(B) at
(C) about
(D) in
30. An exhibition _________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.
(A) into
(B) for
(C) of
(D) on
Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.
31. A disease which spreads by contact
(A) infection
(B) contagious
(C) contiguous
(D) uxoring
32. A science which studies insects
(A) Entomology
(B) Epistemology
(C) Entymology
(D) Biology
33. That which cann’t be corrected
(A) Ineligible
(B) Ineluctable
(C) Insortable
(D) Incorrigible
34. One who believes easily
(A) sedulous
(B) credible
(C) assiduous
(D) credulous
35. A speech made for first time
(A) simultaneous
(B) drawn
(C) extempore
(D) maiden
Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.
36. Obstinate
(A) Hoary
(B) Amenable
(C) Tenable
(D) Tender
37. Pernicious
(A) Salutary
(B) Recondite
(C) Innocuous
(D) Disastrous
38. Radical
(A) Singular
(B) Unusual
(C) Normal
(D) Conservative
39. Mention
(A) Impart
(B) Observe
(C) Attend
(D) Conceal
Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.
40. Sedentary
(A) Material
(B) Sluggish
(C) Slash
(D) Mischief
41. Pertinacious
(A) Stubborn
(B) Tremulous
(C) Stupid
(D) Stingy
42. Gregarious
(A) Clumsy
(B) Pugnacious
(C) Turbulent
(D) Saciable
43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—
(A) Abu temple
(B) Ranakpura temple
(C) Dilwara temple
(D) Marble temple
44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—
(A) October 20, 1945
(B) November 11, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1946
45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—
(A) Weapon
(B) Agricultural implements
(C) Script
(D) Coin
46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—
(A) President
(B) Judiciary
(C) People
(D) Legislature
47. The major producer of copper is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Madhya Pradesh
48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—
(A) Charles Andies
(B) General Ramphel
(C) John Quat
(D) Weden Powel
49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?
(A) Central
(B) Urban
(C) State
(D) Village administration
50. Chanakya was known by the name—
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Vishnugupta
(C) Shrigupta
(D) None of these
51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Saudi Arab
(D) Kuwait
52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—
(A) Jin
(B) Ratna
(C) Kaivalya
(D) Nirvana
53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—
(A) North pole
(B) Tropic of Capricorn
(C) Equator
(D) Tropic of cancer
54. Silicon dioxide is used in—
(A) Cement production
(B) Cutting hard precious metals
(C) Glass manufacture
(D) None of these
55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?
(A) Dynamo
(B) Thermopile
(C) Battery
(D) Atom bomb
56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—
(A) Day will lengthen
(B) Night will lengthen
(C) Both will remain same
(D) Both will be equal
57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—
(A) Religion
(B) Art
(C) Literature
(D) Architecture
58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
59. The brightest star in the sky is—
(A) Proxima Centauri
(B) Bernard
(C) Nebula
(D) Cirius
60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 15
61. From which mine diamond is extracted?
(A) Panna
(B) Golkunda
(C) Jaipur
(D) None of these
62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?
(A) Bihar
(B) Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—
(A) Krishna
(B) Pennar
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Godavari
64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—
(A) Ramp
(B) Rift
(C) Delta
(D) None of these
65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Sutlej
(B) Jhelum
(C) Ravi
(D) Chenab
66. Rigmies are related to—
(A) Asia
(B) Europe
(C) Africa
(D) America
67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—
(A) Krishna
(B) Cauvery
(C) Narmada
(D) Mahanadi
68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—
(A) Silicon
(B) Carbon
(C) Iron
(D) None of these
69. The old name of African country Ghana is—
(A) Abisinia
(B) Congo
(C) Gold Coast
(D) Tanganika
70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?
(A) James Princep
(B) James Williams
(C) John Munro
(D) None of these
71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—
(A) Ram Charit Manas
(B) Mahabharat
(C) Puranas
(D) Upanishad
72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?
(A) Quit India
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Salt
(D) Bardoli
73. The noble gas is—
(A) Helium
(B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Hydrogen
74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Directive principles of state policy
(D) Seventh schedule
75. Who administers the Union Territory?
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) Governor
(C) Former Governor
(D) President
76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Gravity
(D) Atmospheric pressure
77. Which is not an electric resistant?
(A) Lac
(B) Glass
(C) Charcoal
(D) Ebonite
78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—
(A) Tom Morrison
(B) Luther King
(C) John King
(D) None of these
79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Earth
(C) Mars
(D) None of these
80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—
(A) Geneva
(B) Manila
(C) Bangkok
(D) Jakarta
81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?
(A) Iodine
(B) Magnesium
(C) Sulphur
(D) Phosphorus
82. In which disease blood does not clot?
(A) Thrombosis
(B) Haemophilia
(C) Pneumonia
(D) None of these
83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) None of these
84. National Codet Corps was established in—
(A) 1948
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
85. The first Yoga University was established at—
(A) Bodh Gaya
(B) Mumbai
(C) Monghyr
(D) Kolkata
86. The biggest glacier of India is—
(A) Siachin
(B) Yamanotri
(C) Chunhari
(D) Gangotri
87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) None of these
88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—
(A) Britain
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) India
89. Which of the following did not come to India?
(A) Megasthanese
(B) Columbus
(C) Vasco De Gama
(D) Fahein
90. Double fault is related to—
(A) Footbal
(B) Rugby
(C) Tennis
(D) None of these
91. Which of these is the largest railway zone?
(A) Central Railway
(B) Southern Railway
(C) Eastern Railway
(D) Northern Railway
92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?
(A) Neha Kapoor
(B) Neha Dhupia
(C) Priyanka Sud
(D) None of these
93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?
(A) NUTL
(B) NTTJ
(C) NTTL
(D) LTRS
94. LO : PK : : IT : ?
(A) GT
(B) SH
(C) MN
(D) FU
95.Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Australia
(C) America
(D) India
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)
RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009
1. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(A) 6 : 30
(B) 6 : 00
(C) 6 : 15
(D) 4 : 20
2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 25
3. If x means −, ÷ means +, + means ÷, − means x then find the value of 13 − 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100
(A) 1/760
(B) 76
(C) 176
(D) 186
4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(A) 18 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 16 km
(D) 10 km
5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(A) Karishma
(B) Kajal
(C) Ankita
(D) None of these
6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?
(A) 28th, 22nd
(B) 27th, 21st
(C) 28th, 20th
(D) 27th, 22nd
7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(A) 24
(B) 57
(C) 58
(D) 27
8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—
(A) 8, 9, 8
(B) 9, 8, 8
(C) 10, 1, 6
(D) 10, 8, 9
9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(A) 978626
(B) 112144
(C) 447355
(D) 869756
10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—
(A) 11
(B) 13
(C) 17
(D) 9
11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—
(A) 370
(B) 352
(C) 361
(D) 371
12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.
(A) Rs. 80
(B) Rs. 120
(C) Rs. 140
(D) Rs. 160
13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?
(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 0
(D) 1
14. Find the value of 50 × 8.
(A) 40
(B) 200
(C) 8
(D) 0
15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—
(A) 24/5 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 10/3 %
16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—
(A) 9%
(B) 10%
(C) 18%
(D) 900/109 %
17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(A) 50/144 %
(B) 5%
(C) 1/12 %
(D) 5/24 %
18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(A) 28.50°C
(B) 270°C
(C) 300°C
(D) 320°C
20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—
(A) 10 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 7 days
21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?
(A) 17 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 26 cm
(D) 23 cm
22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?
(A) 2 times
(B) 1/3 times
(C) 9 times
(D) 3 times
23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—
(A) 32 km/h
(B) 50 km/h
(C) 45 km/h
(D) 64 km/h
24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 3
25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 17/3 times
(C) 45/7 minutes
(D) 5/4 minutes
26. Find the value of 0.0016—
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.04
(C) 0.8
(D) 4
27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 2
Directions (28-30): Fill up the blanks with the appropriate words.
28. Mr. Jagdish is confident _________ his success.
(A) about
(B) of
(C) for
(D) regarding
29. He persisted _________ doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.
(A) on
(B) at
(C) about
(D) in
30. An exhibition _________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.
(A) into
(B) for
(C) of
(D) on
Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.
31. A disease which spreads by contact
(A) infection
(B) contagious
(C) contiguous
(D) uxoring
32. A science which studies insects
(A) Entomology
(B) Epistemology
(C) Entymology
(D) Biology
33. That which cann’t be corrected
(A) Ineligible
(B) Ineluctable
(C) Insortable
(D) Incorrigible
34. One who believes easily
(A) sedulous
(B) credible
(C) assiduous
(D) credulous
35. A speech made for first time
(A) simultaneous
(B) drawn
(C) extempore
(D) maiden
Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.
36. Obstinate
(A) Hoary
(B) Amenable
(C) Tenable
(D) Tender
37. Pernicious
(A) Salutary
(B) Recondite
(C) Innocuous
(D) Disastrous
38. Radical
(A) Singular
(B) Unusual
(C) Normal
(D) Conservative
39. Mention
(A) Impart
(B) Observe
(C) Attend
(D) Conceal
Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.
40. Sedentary
(A) Material
(B) Sluggish
(C) Slash
(D) Mischief
41. Pertinacious
(A) Stubborn
(B) Tremulous
(C) Stupid
(D) Stingy
42. Gregarious
(A) Clumsy
(B) Pugnacious
(C) Turbulent
(D) Saciable
43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—
(A) Abu temple
(B) Ranakpura temple
(C) Dilwara temple
(D) Marble temple
44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—
(A) October 20, 1945
(B) November 11, 1944
(C) October 24, 1945
(D) June 26, 1946
45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—
(A) Weapon
(B) Agricultural implements
(C) Script
(D) Coin
46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—
(A) President
(B) Judiciary
(C) People
(D) Legislature
47. The major producer of copper is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Madhya Pradesh
48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—
(A) Charles Andies
(B) General Ramphel
(C) John Quat
(D) Weden Powel
49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?
(A) Central
(B) Urban
(C) State
(D) Village administration
50. Chanakya was known by the name—
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Vishnugupta
(C) Shrigupta
(D) None of these
51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Saudi Arab
(D) Kuwait
52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—
(A) Jin
(B) Ratna
(C) Kaivalya
(D) Nirvana
53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—
(A) North pole
(B) Tropic of Capricorn
(C) Equator
(D) Tropic of cancer
54. Silicon dioxide is used in—
(A) Cement production
(B) Cutting hard precious metals
(C) Glass manufacture
(D) None of these
55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?
(A) Dynamo
(B) Thermopile
(C) Battery
(D) Atom bomb
56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—
(A) Day will lengthen
(B) Night will lengthen
(C) Both will remain same
(D) Both will be equal
57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—
(A) Religion
(B) Art
(C) Literature
(D) Architecture
58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
59. The brightest star in the sky is—
(A) Proxima Centauri
(B) Bernard
(C) Nebula
(D) Cirius
60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 15
61. From which mine diamond is extracted?
(A) Panna
(B) Golkunda
(C) Jaipur
(D) None of these
62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?
(A) Bihar
(B) Orissa
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—
(A) Krishna
(B) Pennar
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Godavari
64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—
(A) Ramp
(B) Rift
(C) Delta
(D) None of these
65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Sutlej
(B) Jhelum
(C) Ravi
(D) Chenab
66. Rigmies are related to—
(A) Asia
(B) Europe
(C) Africa
(D) America
67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—
(A) Krishna
(B) Cauvery
(C) Narmada
(D) Mahanadi
68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—
(A) Silicon
(B) Carbon
(C) Iron
(D) None of these
69. The old name of African country Ghana is—
(A) Abisinia
(B) Congo
(C) Gold Coast
(D) Tanganika
70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?
(A) James Princep
(B) James Williams
(C) John Munro
(D) None of these
71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—
(A) Ram Charit Manas
(B) Mahabharat
(C) Puranas
(D) Upanishad
72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?
(A) Quit India
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Salt
(D) Bardoli
73. The noble gas is—
(A) Helium
(B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Hydrogen
74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Directive principles of state policy
(D) Seventh schedule
75. Who administers the Union Territory?
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) Governor
(C) Former Governor
(D) President
76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Gravity
(D) Atmospheric pressure
77. Which is not an electric resistant?
(A) Lac
(B) Glass
(C) Charcoal
(D) Ebonite
78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—
(A) Tom Morrison
(B) Luther King
(C) John King
(D) None of these
79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?
(A) Mercury
(B) Earth
(C) Mars
(D) None of these
80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—
(A) Geneva
(B) Manila
(C) Bangkok
(D) Jakarta
81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?
(A) Iodine
(B) Magnesium
(C) Sulphur
(D) Phosphorus
82. In which disease blood does not clot?
(A) Thrombosis
(B) Haemophilia
(C) Pneumonia
(D) None of these
83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) None of these
84. National Codet Corps was established in—
(A) 1948
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
85. The first Yoga University was established at—
(A) Bodh Gaya
(B) Mumbai
(C) Monghyr
(D) Kolkata
86. The biggest glacier of India is—
(A) Siachin
(B) Yamanotri
(C) Chunhari
(D) Gangotri
87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) None of these
88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—
(A) Britain
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) India
89. Which of the following did not come to India?
(A) Megasthanese
(B) Columbus
(C) Vasco De Gama
(D) Fahein
90. Double fault is related to—
(A) Footbal
(B) Rugby
(C) Tennis
(D) None of these
91. Which of these is the largest railway zone?
(A) Central Railway
(B) Southern Railway
(C) Eastern Railway
(D) Northern Railway
92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?
(A) Neha Kapoor
(B) Neha Dhupia
(C) Priyanka Sud
(D) None of these
93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?
(A) NUTL
(B) NTTJ
(C) NTTL
(D) LTRS
94. LO : PK : : IT : ?
(A) GT
(B) SH
(C) MN
(D) FU
95.Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Australia
(C) America
(D) India
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)
RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009
RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009
(Held on 7th june 2009)
Reasoning
Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these
2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient
3. Who is third to the G’s left?
(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D
4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
English language
Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
6.
(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.
(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous
Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE
(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail
13.ASSURANCE
(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail
14. ACCESS
(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS
(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
Maths/physics
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?
(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—
(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r
18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
is?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500
20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—
(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21
24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m
28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°
30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit
31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—
(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105
36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these
40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these
Ans:
1:D 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:B 6:B
7:C 8:A 9:B 10:C 11:A 12:B
13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:A 18:B
19:B 20:C 21:D 22::B 23:C 24:C
25:D 26:A 27:D 28:D 29:D 30:D
31:A 32:B 33:C 34:A 35:D 36:B
37:A 38:A 39:D 40:D 228 persons
RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009
(Held on 7th june 2009)
Reasoning
Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these
2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient
3. Who is third to the G’s left?
(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D
4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
English language
Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
6.
(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.
(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous
Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE
(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail
13.ASSURANCE
(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail
14. ACCESS
(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS
(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
Maths/physics
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?
(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—
(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r
18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
is?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500
20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—
(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21
24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m
28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°
30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit
31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—
(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105
36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these
40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these
Ans:
1:D 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:B 6:B
7:C 8:A 9:B 10:C 11:A 12:B
13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:A 18:B
19:B 20:C 21:D 22::B 23:C 24:C
25:D 26:A 27:D 28:D 29:D 30:D
31:A 32:B 33:C 34:A 35:D 36:B
37:A 38:A 39:D 40:D 228 persons
RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Find the odd-one out?
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer
2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan
3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning
4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta
5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur
6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu
7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid
11. Hemoglobin containing iron is—
(A)Antibody
(B) Nucleic Acid
(C)Protein
(D) Hormone
12. The only Indian Governor General was?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
13. From when ‘Rashtriya GraminRozgar Yojna’ is being run
throughout the country?
(A) 1—4—2007
(B) 2—10—2007
(C) 1—4—2008
(D) 14—11—2007
14.. ‘Bharat Nirman Karyakram’ was launched keeping in view the following—
(A) During 2008-09 10 million extra jobs
(B) During 2005-09 10 million extra irrigation
(C) During 11th plan 1 lakh km road in villages
(D) During 11th plan IT park in all districts
15. Who among the following won a Gold Medal in Olympic 2008?
(A) Milkha Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Sania Mirza
16.. Mansarovar lake is located in?
(A)Nepal
(B) India
(C)Tibet
(D) Bhutan
17. Next Commonwealth games will be played in?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Karanchi
(C)Seol
(D) Melbourne
18. Which of the following is a National Capital ?
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Washington DC
(D) California
19. In India Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year—
(A)1959AD
(B) 1960AD
(C)1956AD
(D) 1952 AD
20. which of the following is not an immediate neighbour of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Iran
21. How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 21
22.Which of the following plan resulted in India’s independence?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) MountbattenPlan
(D) None of these
23. ELISA is—
(A) Fat Precipitation Test
(B) Immunological Test
(C) Osteomalacia Test
(D) None of these
24. The main source of Direct Foreign Investment in India is—
(A)USA
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Mauritius
25. Histology is a study of?
(A)Blood
(B) Tissues
(C)Cells
(D) Protein
26. Plague is a disease caused by?
(A) Cattle flea
(B) Dog flea
(C) Rat flea
(D) None of these
27. The famous Gayatri Mantra’ is found in which of the following Vedas?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
28. Which is the rate of Heart beats of a child during birth?
(A) 120 times
(B) 140 times
(C) 90 times
(D) 130 times
29. Which of the following is the hottest planet?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Earth
(D) Venus
30. What is the main basis of the dividing the atmospheric layers?
(A) Air pressure
(B) Composition
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
31, The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called ?
(A) Bandwidth
(B) Interlacing
(C) Response time
(0) Scanning
32. From 2009 the two new members of NATO are?
(A) Austria and Greece
(B) Bulgaria and Turkey
(C) Crotia and Albania
(D) Romania and Poland
33. In Beijing Olympics, the winner of gold medal in football (for men)was—
(A) Argentina
(B) Belgium
(C)Brazil
(D) Nigeria
34. In the General Election, 2009 the Lok Sabha seats won by the Congress are?
(A) 204 seats
(8) 206 seats
(C) 203 seats
(D) None of these
35. Which one of the following Slates of India has been recently awarded UN OSCAR by the United Nations Secretary General for the best Human Development report?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Gujarat
(C)Kerala
(D) Sikkim
36. Who among the following was chosen ‘Business Leader of the Year’ in ‘The Economic Times Award, 2007’?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Mukesh Dhirubhai Ambani
(0) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani
37. Which of the following cricketers has experience of hitting 8 sixes in an over in an international cricket match?
(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Yuvaraj Singh
(D) Gautam Gambhir
38. Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate according to 2001 census?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamilnadu
(D) Meghalaya
39. The capital of the Pallavas was?
(A)Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C)Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
40. The back surface of mirrors are coated with a thin layer of?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Red oxide
(D) Silver nitrate
41. ‘Gidda’ is a folk dance from which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
42. India’s first mobile court was inaugurated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
43. The Sun Feast Open, 2007 was won by?
(A) Vania King
(B)Mariya Koryttseva
(C) Sania Mirza
(D)Maria Kirilenko
44. In which state is the Kanger Ghati National Park situated ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
45. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(D) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
46. Venus Williams won Wimbledon,2008 women’s singles title by defeating?
(A) Ana Ivanovic
(B)Elena Dementieva
(C) Justice Henin
(D)Serena Williams
47. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, as approved by the Union Cabinet, will be set up at?
(A) Amethi
(B) Jais
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rae Bareli
48. In Uttar Pradesh, the artificial rubber factory is situated at—
(A)Bareilly
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Modinagar
(D) Gorakhpur
49. Nathu La was reopened in 2006 for trans border trade between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Nepal
50. The term ‘Plastic Money’ applies to—
(A) Bank draft made of plastic coated paper
(B) Currency notes printed on plastic coated paper
(C) Currency notes impregnated with plastic thread
(D) Credit Cards mainly issued by the banks
1:D
2:C
3:C
4:A
5:B
6:A
7:B
8:B
9:C
10:C
11:C
12:B
13:C
14:C
15:B
16:C
17:A
18:C
19:D
20:D
21:C
22:C
23:B
24:D
25:B
26:C
27:A
28:D
29:D
30:C
31:A
32:C
33:A
34:D
35:A
36:C
37:C
38:B
39:B
40:D
41:A
42:D
43:D
44:D
45:C
46:D
47:D
48::C
49::B
50:D
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